MAK LABS — CTET 1 March 2026 Paper II (Social Studies) Question Paper with Answer Key

1.An effective strategy for solving ill-defined problems is:

(1) Focusing on functional fixedness
(2) Means-Ends analysis
(3) Algorithms
(4) Learning by rote

Why: An ill-defined problem has no clear path to the goal, so an algorithm cannot be applied. Means-ends analysis works backwards from the goal, breaking the gap into sub-goals and closing them one by one. Functional fixedness is a barrier to problem-solving, and rote learning has nothing to offer a new problem.

2.Which of the following set of qualities characterizes critical thinking?
(i) Ability to question
(ii) Ability to self-reflect
(iii) Ability to test previously held assumptions
(iv) Ability to think convergently
Choose the correct option:

(1) (i) and (iv)
(2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i) and (ii)

Why: Questioning, reflecting on one’s own reasoning and testing one’s own assumptions are the core of critical thinking. Convergent thinking — narrowing down to one expected answer — is not what defines it, so (iv) is the odd one out.

3.Which of the following statement about the role of heredity and environment in the development of a child is correct?

(1) While heredity contributes in unfolding of the child’s characteristic traits, the entirety of a child’s development is solely based on environmental factors.
(2) While heredity provides the genetic blueprint for an individual’s development, the expression of those genes can be influenced by environmental factors.
(3) Both heredity and environment contribute 50% each in the development of a child.
(4) Dispositions are linked with environmental factors but actual development occurs on the basis of heredity.

Why: Heredity and environment interact: genes set the possibilities, and the environment shapes how they are expressed. Option 1 and option 4 each hand development to one side alone, and no fixed 50–50 split exists.

4.Arpita and Anu give their books to each other since both consider it ‘an equal exchange of favours’. At which level of Kohlberg’s moral development theory are Arpita and Anu?

(1) Heteronomous level
(2) Post-conventional level
(3) Conventional level
(4) Pre-conventional level

Why: [KEY] The CBSE final key credits option 1. In Kohlberg’s scheme, Stage 1 is called heteronomous morality, and the “you help me, I help you” reasoning shown here is Stage 2, instrumental exchange. Both stages sit at the pre-conventional level, so textbooks would point to option 4. The key, however, has taken the heteronomous (externally governed) label as the answer, and candidates were marked on option 1.

5.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): When unable to ‘make meaning’, efficient readers slow down and reread the text clarifying confusion before continuing further.
Reason (R): Metacognition hinders the process of meaning-making.

(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Slowing down and rereading when meaning breaks down is exactly what skilled readers do, so (A) is true. That behaviour is metacognition at work — monitoring one’s own understanding — which helps meaning-making rather than hindering it, so (R) is false.

6.Which of the following sets describe ways in which a school should be inclusive?
(i) Modification of curriculum as required
(ii) Expecting students to totally adapt to the school’s culture
(iii) Fostering an ethos of care and respect
(iv) Opportunities for collaborative learning
Choose the correct option:

(1) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Why: An inclusive school changes itself to fit its learners: it adapts the curriculum, builds a caring climate and lets children learn together. Expecting children to adapt entirely to the school puts the burden the wrong way round, so (ii) is excluded.

7.Which of the following statement about socialization is correct?

(1) Socialization cultivates shared sources of meaning and value.
(2) Socialization is culture-independent and context-neutral.
(3) Socialization happens only during childhood.
(4) Norms and beliefs cannot be acquired through socialization process.

Why: Through socialization a child takes on the meanings, values and norms shared by the group. It is always shaped by culture and context, it continues through life, and acquiring norms and beliefs is precisely what it does.

8.Role of a teacher in ‘reciprocal teaching’ is characterized by:

(1) a shift from being a support and guide towards gradual release of responsibility to the students.
(2) being a mere recipient of the suggestions given by students.
(3) the position of dominance and sole authority to disseminate the information to students.
(4) his/her position of being a passive observer throughout the process.

Why: In reciprocal teaching the teacher first models the strategies of predicting, questioning, clarifying and summarising, then hands the lead to students step by step. That gradual release is the defining feature; the teacher is neither dominant nor passive.

9.An assessment approach aiming to support students’ learning is characterized by:

(1) Consideration of method of solving the problem along with the outcome.
(2) Focus on inaccuracies only while ignoring the process and endeavours.
(3) Exams done at the end of the year through objective type questions.
(4) Evaluation and marking based on standardized quiz-based tests.

Why: Assessment for learning looks at how a student reached the answer, not only at the answer, because the method shows where help is needed. Counting only errors, year-end objective tests and standardised quizzes all judge the product and say little about the process.

10.Which of the following is an effective strategy of emotional regulation?

(1) Channelling emotions to use them as a source of inspiration and creative endeavours
(2) Waiting until emotions escalate to the point of losing control
(3) Reacting impulsively to emotional triggers
(4) Suppressing emotions in order to conform to social norms

Why: Regulating an emotion means directing it into something constructive. Letting it escalate or reacting on impulse is the absence of regulation, and suppression only hides the feeling without managing it.

11.Learning about a concept/category is easier if:

(1) previous knowledge about the concept is not activated.
(2) concept is represented in abstract and complex ways.
(3) familiar examples are provided while introducing the concept.
(4) lots of advanced information is given to create cognitive load.

Why: Familiar examples link the new concept to what the learner already knows, which makes it easier to grasp. Not activating prior knowledge, presenting the concept abstractly and piling on cognitive load all make learning harder.

12.According to Jean Piaget, what is the role of symbolic thought in cognitive development?

(1) Symbolic thought develops after cognitive development is complete.
(2) Symbolic thought impacts cognitive development only in children with language delays.
(3) Symbolic thought causes mental confusion and hinders cognitive development.
(4) Symbolic thought facilitates cognitive development by allowing for mental processes like problem-solving.

Why: For Piaget, the ability to let one thing stand for another — words, images, pretend play — emerges in the pre-operational stage and lets the child think about objects that are not present. That opens the way to mental problem-solving, so it drives development rather than following or hindering it.

13.Which of the following typical characteristics is a child struggling with dysgraphia likely to show?

(1) Aggression, frustration and stress
(2) Impulsiveness; difficulty in concentrating and forgetfulness
(3) Slow in written work; makes poorly formed letters, has difficulty copying from blackboard
(4) Withdrawal, guilt and anxiety

Why: Dysgraphia is a difficulty with writing, so the signs are in written work: slowness, badly formed letters and trouble copying. Option 2 describes attention difficulties, and options 1 and 4 are emotional reactions that may accompany many problems.

14.A teacher is providing learners with the chances to be exposed to and analyze concepts in order to help them understand the content through her support. This is an example of:

(1) Expository teaching
(2) Guided discovery
(3) Pre-dispositional learning
(4) Observational modelling

Why: Learners explore and analyse the concepts themselves while the teacher supports and steers them — that is guided discovery. Expository teaching would present the content ready-made, and observational modelling means learning by watching a model.

15.Which of the following statements is correct about gender development in contemporary times?

(1) Gender is purely and solely determined by an individual’s anatomy at birth.
(2) Gender exists on a binary concept – one is either male or female.
(3) Gender identity is influenced by cultural conceptions.
(4) Gender identity is not influenced by socialization.

Why: Gender identity is shaped by the ideas a culture holds about gender and by the socialization a child receives. Treating it as fixed by anatomy, strictly binary, or untouched by socialization runs against the current understanding.

16.Which of the following hinders problem-solving?

(1) Breaking down large complex problems into manageable smaller problems
(2) Fixating on a single trait of a composite problem
(3) Applying algorithms and heuristics
(4) Using a solution which was effective in solving a similar problem earlier

Why: Getting stuck on one feature of a many-sided problem blocks the solver from seeing the rest of it. Breaking a problem into parts, using algorithms and heuristics, and transferring a solution that worked before are all aids.

17.Activities which ______________ are detrimental to students’ motivation to learn.

(1) are moderately difficult for students
(2) connect with real life of students
(3) cater to students’ needs and interests
(4) aim at intangible goals decided solely by the teacher

Why: Goals that students cannot see and had no part in setting give them no reason to engage. Moderate challenge, real-life connection and attention to their needs and interests all build motivation.

18.Following Lev Vygotsky’s ideas on learning, a teacher should:

(1) encourage students to continually compete with each other.
(2) prevent integration of cultural knowledge in discussions.
(3) capitalize on dialogue and group learning during activities.
(4) discourage verbalization and thinking aloud among students.

Why: Vygotsky saw learning as social: children learn through talk and joint activity with others. Dialogue and group work follow directly from that. Constant competition, keeping culture out and discouraging talk all cut against his view.

19.Jean Piaget gave importance to ____________ in the course of development and learning.

(1) exam-centric pedagogy
(2) conditioning of behaviour
(3) children’s maturation and readiness to learn
(4) cultural tools

Why: Piaget held that children move through stages as they mature, and can only learn what their current stage makes them ready for. Conditioning belongs to behaviourism and cultural tools to Vygotsky.

20.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Teachers should ensure enough ‘wait time’, which is the length of time a teacher pauses, after asking a question.
Reason (R): Diversity is an asset and not an obstacle.

(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Enough wait time gives more students the chance to think and respond, so (A) is true. Diversity being a resource is also true, but it is a separate principle; the case for wait time rests on thinking time, not on diversity.

21.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Children learn most effectively when they are criticized frequently for their mistakes.
Reason (R): Frequent criticism makes children self-reliant which helps in improving their academic performance.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Frequent criticism breeds fear and loss of confidence, which gets in the way of learning, so (A) is false. It does not build self-reliance either, so (R) is false too. Mistakes are better treated as a window into the child’s thinking.

22.Inclusion of students belonging to disadvantaged backgrounds requires:

(1) identity-based segregation of students.
(2) consideration of socio-cultural diversity.
(3) execution of standardized curriculum.
(4) tradition of exam-centered pedagogy.

Why: Including children from disadvantaged backgrounds means taking their social and cultural contexts into account in what and how they are taught. Segregation excludes them outright, and a standardised curriculum or exam-centred teaching ignores the very differences inclusion must respond to.

23.Contemporary theorists believe that childhood is:

(1) A life stage that is awaiting adulthood.
(2) A stage associated with divinity, purity and goodness.
(3) Merely a transitional stage.
(4) Variable and dynamic.

Why: Current thinking treats childhood as socially constructed: it differs across cultures, classes and periods, and it changes. Seeing it only as a waiting room for adulthood, a transition, or a romantic state of purity are older views.

24.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): A middle school language arts teacher selects stories and clippings from newspapers and magazines that portray men and women in non-traditional roles.
Reason (R): Countering prevalent gender stereotypes by presenting other models is an effective way to overcome gender bias.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Why: The teacher’s choice of materials in (A) is a sound practice, and (R) gives the reason for it: showing people in non-stereotyped roles challenges gender bias. So both are true and (R) explains (A).

25.The process of bringing back the information stored in memory to current state is called _____________.

(1) Forgetting
(2) Decay
(3) Retrieval
(4) Attention

Why: Retrieval is the recall of stored information into present awareness. Forgetting and decay are failures to do so, and attention operates when information first comes in.

26.Which of the following statements about classroom assessment is correct?

(1) Use of norm-referenced assessment that compares performance of the student to that of peers motivates students to learn more meaningfully.
(2) Focus of assessment should be paper-pencil assessment rather than non-written behaviours to maintain objectivity.
(3) Formative assessment should include tasks which inform teachers about what students know about the concept before they begin teaching.
(4) Summative assessment does not serve any purpose and should not be undertaken since the process is more important than the final learning outcome.

Why: Finding out what students already know before teaching a concept is a formative purpose: it shapes how the teacher plans. Comparing students with peers breeds competition rather than meaning, limiting assessment to paper-pencil misses much of learning, and summative assessment does have a role.

27.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Adaptations such as audio tapes, use of computer software which provides text-to-speech input, extended time to complete assignments, facilitate learning for students who are visually challenged.
Reason (R): Teachers should adapt the curriculum to provide equity and meet the needs of diverse learners.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Why: The adaptations in (A) do help visually challenged students, and they are one application of the principle in (R): adapting the curriculum so that diverse learners get equal access. Both are true and (R) explains (A).

28.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Adolescents have difficulty with emotional regulation and inhibiting their impulses and are quite susceptible to peer pressure.
Reason (R): Physiological and hormonal changes during adolescence impact the behaviour of adolescents in a variety of ways.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(2) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Adolescents do find it harder to regulate emotions and resist impulses and peer pressure, and the hormonal and physical changes of the period are a main cause of that. Both are true and (R) explains (A).

29.Gifted children:

(1) excel in all academic as well as co-curricular areas.
(2) exhibit high cognitive abilities as well as skills of social communication.
(3) get distracted easily and have low concentration span.
(4) absorb information quickly and accurately.

Why: Taking in information fast and accurately is a typical mark of giftedness. It is a myth that gifted children excel everywhere or always have strong social skills, and easy distraction describes attention difficulties rather than giftedness.

30.Which of the following statements about language and cognition is not correct as per Lev Vygotsky’s theory?

(1) Language development hinders cognitive development.
(2) Inner speech is used for mental reasoning.
(3) Language inevitably affects the way a child thinks.
(4) External speech is used to converse with others.

Why: For Vygotsky language is the main tool of thought: external speech is for communicating, inner speech for reasoning, and language shapes how a child thinks. The claim that language development hinders cognition is the opposite of his view, so it is the incorrect statement.

31.Consider the following statements on the impact of Indigo crop on peasant life:
A. When the indigo crop was delivered to the planter after the harvest, a new loan was given to the ryot.
B. The price that the peasants got for the indigo they had produced was very low.
C. The planters insisted on the best soils for indigo.
D. Indigo did not have deep roots and exhausted the soil.
Choose the correct option:

(1) Only A, C and D are correct.
(2) Only B, C and D are correct.
(3) Only A, B and D are correct.
(4) Only A, B and C are correct.

Why: Under the ryoti system a fresh loan followed each delivery, so the ryot was trapped in a cycle of debt; the price paid was very low; and planters demanded the best soils. D is false: indigo had deep roots, and that is why it exhausted the soil so quickly.

32.Match the following columns:
A. Creation of Andhra Pradesh as a State — i. 1956
B. States Reorganisation Commission submitted its first report — ii. 1953
C. Gujarat came into existence as a State — iii. 1966
D. Haryana became a State — iv. 1960
Choose the correct option:

(1) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(3) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

Why: Andhra Pradesh was formed on 1 October 1953 after Potti Sriramulu’s fast. The NCERT account dates the Commission’s report to 1956, the year states were redrawn on linguistic lines. Bombay was divided into Maharashtra and Gujarat in 1960, and Punjab into Punjab and Haryana in 1966.

33.The Buddha told the Vajjis that they would continue to prosper as long as:
A. They held frequent public assemblies.
B. They met and acted together.
C. They followed established rules.
D. Vajji women were not held by force or captured.
Choose the correct option:

(1) A and C are correct.
(2) A, B, C and D are correct.
(3) A, B and C are correct.
(4) A and B are correct.

Why: All four are among the conditions the Buddha listed for the Vajji gana, as recorded in Buddhist texts: full and frequent assemblies, meeting and acting in unity, keeping to established rules, and not seizing or detaining women by force.

34.Which of the following is the correct sequence in which states were annexed under the Doctrine of Lapse, from the earliest to the last?

(1) Satara, Sambalpur, Udaipur, Nagpur, Jhansi
(2) Sambalpur, Satara, Nagpur, Udaipur, Jhansi
(3) Sambalpur, Satara, Udaipur, Nagpur, Jhansi
(4) Satara, Nagpur, Udaipur, Sambalpur, Jhansi

Why: Under Lord Dalhousie: Satara (1848), Sambalpur (1850), Udaipur (1852), Nagpur (1853) and Jhansi (1854).

35.Which of the following was a tax in the form of forced labour during the reign of the Cholas?

(1) Vetti
(2) Peruvazhi
(3) Kadamai
(4) Porvari

Why: Chola inscriptions mention more than 400 terms for taxes. Vetti was taken not in cash but as forced labour. Kadamai was land revenue, and peruvazhi a tax on trade.

36.Read the given statements (A) and (B):
(A): During the nineteenth century, Christian missionaries began setting up schools for tribal groups and lower caste children.
(B): At the same time, the poor began leaving their villages to look for jobs that were opening up in the cities.
Choose the correct option:

(1) Both (A) and (B) are true.
(2) Both (A) and (B) are false.
(3) (A) is false, but (B) is true.
(4) (A) is true, but (B) is false.

Why: Both describe the nineteenth century. Missionary schools opened education to tribal and lower-caste children, and new work in cities, ports, plantations and the army drew the poor away from villages — together these loosened the hold of caste.

37.Match the following:
Crop/Item — Site
A. Green gram — i. Koldihwa
B. Black gram — ii. Chirand
C. Fragmented animal bone — iii. Paiyampalli
D. Dog — iv. Burzahom
Choose the correct option:

(1) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
(2) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(3) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(4) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

Why: [KEY] The CBSE final key credits option 3. The NCERT Class VI table of early farming sites, which this item is drawn from, lists green gram at Chirand, black gram at Paiyampalli, fragmentary animal bones at Koldihwa and dog at Burzahom — the pairing in option 2. Only D–iv (dog at Burzahom) is common to both.

38.The Paramhansa Mandali was founded in 1840 to work for the abolition of which of the following issues?

(1) Sati system
(2) Child marriage
(3) Widow marriage
(4) Caste system

Why: The Paramhans Mandali, set up in Bombay in 1840, worked secretly for the abolition of caste; its members ate food cooked by people of other castes to break the rule of purity.

39.The Ahoms migrated to the Brahmaputra Valley in the thirteenth century from the present-day ___________ .

(1) Myanmar
(2) Nepal
(3) Bangladesh
(4) Bhutan

Why: The Ahoms came from what is now Myanmar in the thirteenth century and built a new state in the Brahmaputra valley by suppressing the older bhuiyans.

40.Match the following in the context of earliest kingdoms:
A. Magadha — i. Vaishali
B. Vajji — ii. Rajgriha
C. Avanti — iii. Taxila
D. Gandhara — iv. Ujjain
Choose the correct option:

(1) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
(2) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
(3) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

Why: The capitals were Rajagriha for Magadha, Vaishali for the Vajji gana, Ujjain for Avanti and Taxila for Gandhara.

41.From the following, how many pairs are correctly matched as mentioned in the Pallava inscriptions?
I. Sabha – Assembly of Brahmin landowners
II. Ur – Organisation of Merchants
III. Nagaram – Village assembly
Choose the correct option:

(1) All three
(2) Only one
(3) Only two
(4) None of these

Why: Only the first pair is right. The ur was the village assembly of non-Brahmin landowners, and the nagaram was the organisation of merchants — II and III have been swapped.

42.Who said, “We must indeed become nawabs ourselves”?

(1) Major Lawrence
(2) Warren Hastings
(3) Harry Verelst
(4) Robert Clive

Why: Robert Clive wrote this in 1765, expressing the Company’s view that it should take power in Bengal directly rather than work through puppet nawabs.

43.Which one of the following is not true for the Indian National Congress during the colonial period?

(1) It demanded a greater voice for Indians in the government and in the administration.
(2) It wanted the Legislative Councils to be more representative.
(3) It demanded the civil service examinations be held in London, not in India.
(4) In the first twenty years it was “moderate” in its objectives and methods.

Why: The demand was the other way round: the early Congress wanted the civil service examinations to be held in India as well as London, so that Indians had a fair chance. The other three describe the Moderates accurately.

44.Which of the following statements are true about widow remarriage law in colonial India?
A. A law permitting widow marriage was passed in 1858.
B. The number of widows who remarried increased.
C. Many conservative groups continued to oppose this new law.
D. Those who remarried were not easily accepted in society.
Choose the correct option:

(1) A and D
(2) B and D
(3) C and D
(4) A and C

Why: The Widow Remarriage Act was passed in 1856, not 1858, and the number of widows who actually remarried stayed low. Orthodox groups kept opposing it, and widows who did remarry found it hard to be accepted.

45.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Tropical deciduous trees shed their leaves in the dry season.
Reason (R): Trees adapt according to climatic conditions and shed their leaves to conserve water in dry season.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Monsoon forests lose their leaves in the dry season, and they do so to cut water loss through the leaves when water is scarce. (R) explains (A).

46.What do we call the streams of water flowing constantly on the ocean surface in definite directions?

(1) Tides
(2) Currents
(3) Tsunami
(4) Waves

Why: Ocean currents are streams of water moving steadily in a definite direction, warm or cold. Tides are the daily rise and fall of sea level, and waves are up-and-down movements of the surface.

47.What causes the formation of mushroom rocks?

(1) Deposition
(2) Erosion
(3) Weathering
(4) Earthquake

Why: In deserts, wind carrying sand erodes the lower part of a rock more than the top, leaving a narrow stem under a broad cap. The mushroom rock is a landform of wind erosion.

48.Consider the following pairs and identify how many of the given pairs are correctly matched:
Type of forest — Tree found
A. Tropical Rain Forest — Mahogany
B. Tropical Deciduous Forest — Rosewood
C. Thorny Bushes — Deodar
D. Mangrove Forests — Sundari
Choose the correct option:

(1) Only three
(2) Only two
(3) All four
(4) Only one

Why: A and D are right: mahogany grows in tropical rainforests and sundari gives the Sundarbans its name. Rosewood is a rainforest tree (deciduous forests have sal, teak, neem and shisham), and deodar is a Himalayan conifer, not a thorny bush.

49.Which of the following statements is/are correct about meteoroids?
A. They are found between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.
B. It is believed that they are parts of a planet which exploded many years ago.
C. These are small pieces of rocks which move around the Sun and sometimes they come close to the Earth and tend to drop upon it.
Choose the correct option:

(1) Only C
(2) Only B
(3) Only A
(4) Only A and C

Why: C describes meteoroids. A and B are what NCERT says about asteroids — the bodies found between Mars and Jupiter and believed to be parts of an exploded planet.

50.A population pyramid narrow at the base and higher in size reflects:
A. High death rates of infants
B. Low birth rates
C. Increased life expectancy
D. Decreased death rates
Choose the correct option:

(1) Only A, B and C
(2) Only A, C and D
(3) Only B, C and D
(4) Only A and B

Why: A narrow base means few children are being born; a tall, well-filled pyramid means people survive to old age, so death rates are low and life expectancy high. This is the shape of developed countries such as Japan. A high infant death rate does not fit it.

51.Agriculture includes __________.
A. Growing vegetables
B. Pisciculture
C. Horticulture
D. Rearing of livestock
Choose the correct option:

(1) Only A, C and D
(2) Only A and B
(3) Only A
(4) Only A, B and C

Why: The NCERT definition: agriculture includes growing crops, fruits, vegetables and flowers (horticulture) and rearing livestock. Pisciculture, the breeding of fish, is treated as a separate primary activity alongside it.

52.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Wet clothes take a longer time to dry on a humid day.
Reason (R): The rate of evaporation increases on a humid day.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Why: Humid air already holds a lot of moisture, so evaporation slows down — which is exactly why clothes take longer to dry. (A) is true and (R) states the opposite of what happens.

53.Consider the following statements about migration:
A. Migration has no effect on population size as people emigrate from the country and almost an equal number of them immigrate to the country.
B. International migration is largely from the less developed nations to the more developed nations.
C. Sudan is an example of a country that has experienced a loss in population due to emigration.
Choose the correct option:

(1) Only A and C are correct.
(2) Only A and B are correct.
(3) All A, B and C are correct.
(4) Only B and C are correct.

Why: Migration does change population size, because emigrants and immigrants rarely balance — so A is false. People move mostly from less developed to more developed countries, and NCERT cites Sudan as a country that has lost population through emigration.

54.The opening time of Central Government offices in India is 09:00 a.m. IST. What will be the local time of opening of the Central Government offices located at 78° 30′ East Longitude near Hyderabad and 92° 45′ East Longitude near Aizawl, respectively?

(1) 09:41 a.m. and 08:44 a.m. respectively
(2) 08:44 a.m. and 09:41 a.m. respectively
(3) 09:16 a.m. and 08:19 a.m. respectively
(4) 08:19 a.m. and 09:16 a.m. respectively

Why: IST is based on 82° 30′ E, and each degree of longitude is 4 minutes of time. Hyderabad is 4° west, so its local time is 16 minutes behind: 08:44. Aizawl is 10° 15′ east, so it is 41 minutes ahead: 09:41.

55.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Polar easterlies in the northern hemisphere move towards the right direction.
Reason (R): The Earth rotating on its axis affects the direction of the winds.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why: The Earth’s rotation deflects moving air (the Coriolis effect): to the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern. That is why the polar easterlies bend to the right, so (R) explains (A).

56.Which of the following statements is true about heat zones of the Earth?

(1) All the areas lying between the Equator and the Arctic Circle are called temperate zone.
(2) The mid-day Sun never shines overhead on any latitude beyond the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn.
(3) In the whole Southern hemisphere the Sun does not rise much above the horizon, Sun rays are always slanting here.
(4) The mid-day Sun is exactly overhead at least once a year on all latitudes in between the Tropic of Cancer and Arctic Circle.

Why: The overhead Sun moves only between the two tropics, so it is never directly overhead poleward of them. The temperate zone lies between the Tropic and the Arctic Circle, not from the Equator; slanting rays mark the polar regions, not a whole hemisphere; and option 4 describes the torrid zone, not the temperate one.

57.Which of the following statements is/are correct for temperate zones?
A. Temperate zones have moderate temperature.
B. The mid-day Sun never shines overhead on any latitude in this zone.
C. It spans between the Arctic Circle and the Equator in the Northern hemisphere only.
Choose the correct option:

(1) Only A and B
(2) Only A and C
(3) Only A
(4) All A, B and C

Why: Temperate zones have moderate temperatures, and the midday Sun is never overhead there. There are two of them — one in each hemisphere, between each Tropic and its Polar Circle — so C is false on both counts.

58.In which state would you find the sea coast where Vasco da Gama first landed after discovering the sea route from Europe to India?

(1) Karnataka
(2) Andhra Pradesh
(3) Kerala
(4) Tamil Nadu

Why: Vasco da Gama landed near Calicut (Kozhikode) on the Malabar coast in 1498, in present-day Kerala.

59.“An African-American refused to give up her seat on a bus to a white man in 1955 and the incident led to the Civil Rights Movement in USA.” Who was this person?

(1) Rosa Luxemburg
(2) Rosa Parks
(3) Noam Chomsky
(4) Nelson Mandela

Why: Rosa Parks refused to give up her seat in Montgomery, Alabama, on 1 December 1955. Her arrest set off the Montgomery bus boycott and the wider Civil Rights Movement.

60.The most distinctive aspect about the tribal societies is that there is very little ___________ among them.

(1) heterogeneity
(2) hierarchy
(3) diversity
(4) disunity

Why: NCERT describes tribal societies as having very little hierarchy among them, which sets them apart from communities organised around varna and caste.

61.Consider the following statements:
(A) Enforcement of laws is even more important when the law seeks to protect the weak from the strong.
(B) Markets everywhere tend to be exploitative of workers only.
Choose the correct option:

(1) Only (B) is correct.
(2) Only (A) is correct.
(3) Both (A) and (B) are correct.
(4) Neither (A) nor (B) is correct.

Why: NCERT stresses that enforcement matters most where a law protects the weak, such as workers’ safety laws. (B) is too sweeping: markets tend to exploit people — workers, consumers and producers alike — not workers only.

62.The National Medical Commission’s Code of Medical Ethics states every physician should prescribe drugs that come under ___________ medicines.

(1) Generic
(2) International
(3) Superfluous
(4) Preventive

Why: The NMC’s regulations ask doctors to prescribe drugs by their generic names, which are cheaper than branded equivalents and make treatment more affordable.

63.What would you commonly associate a ginning mill with?

(1) Wheat flour
(2) Sugar
(3) Cotton bales
(4) Sunflower

Why: Ginning separates cotton fibre from the seeds; the cleaned cotton is then pressed into bales and sent to spinning mills.

64.Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) are being used in India since 2004 for all general elections. It mainly saves ___________.

(1) approximately 1,50,000 trees that are required to be cut to make ballot papers for every general election
(2) the energy and efforts of local public
(3) the time of the voters and the Election Commission
(4) the money transferred illegally for getting votes

Why: The NCERT account of EVMs notes that doing away with paper ballots saves around 1,50,000 trees that would otherwise be cut to print them for each general election.

65.Which mechanism in a democratic country puts a limit on the powers of the government?

(1) Presence of pressure groups
(2) Multi-party system
(3) Regular elections
(4) People asserting their rights

Why: Because a government must face the people again after a fixed term, regular elections are the basic check on its power: voters can remove it if it misuses that power.

66.Which among the following statements is/are true?
A. Women are emotional, is a common gender stereotype.
B. The concepts of purity and pollution are associated with caste system.
C. English is a superior language, is a prejudiced statement.
D. Recognition of plurality of religions is not a feature of diversity in India.
Choose the correct option:

(1) Only B and D
(2) A, B and C
(3) Only B
(4) Only A

Why: A is a standard example of a gender stereotype, B is how caste ranks people, and C is a prejudice that judges other languages as inferior. D is false: the many religions practised in India are one of the plainest forms of its diversity.

67.A stereotypical viewpoint regards housework as ____________.

(1) women’s natural work
(2) time-consuming for women
(3) difficult for women
(4) valuable work that women do

Why: The stereotype treats housework as something women do by nature, which is also why it goes unpaid and undervalued. Describing it as time-consuming, hard or valuable is simply accurate, not stereotyped.

68.Which of the following are features of the Indian Constitution?
A. It offers special privileges for the supremacy of the judiciary.
B. It adopts universal adult franchise.
C. It guarantees equality before the law to all citizens.
D. It offers special privileges to the poorest and most disadvantaged Indians.
Choose the correct option:

(1) A, B and C only
(2) A, B and D only
(3) B, C and D only
(4) A, C and D only

Why: The Constitution gives every adult the vote, guarantees equality before the law, and makes special provisions for the poorest and most disadvantaged. It creates an independent judiciary, but not ‘special privileges’ for judicial supremacy; power is separated among the organs.

69.Which of the following Fundamental Rights are given to every arrested person under Article 22 of the Indian Constitution?
A. The right to be informed of the offence for which he/she is being arrested.
B. The right to be presented before a magistrate within 48 hours of arrest.
C. The right not to be ill-treated or tortured during arrest or in custody.
D. The right of women and children not to be arrested.
Choose the correct option:

(1) Only B, C and D are correct.
(2) Only A and D are correct.
(3) Only A and B are correct.
(4) Only A and C are correct.

Why: NCERT lists the Article 22 rights as being told the grounds of arrest and being produced before a magistrate (the text of the Article says within 24 hours). Protection from torture in custody comes from Supreme Court guidelines under Article 21, and no rule exempts women and children from arrest altogether.

70.Which part of the Indian Constitution serves as a guide to the Independent Indian State to institute laws and policies that help reduce the poverty of the masses?

(1) Fundamental Rights
(2) Fundamental Duties
(3) Directive Principles of State Policy
(4) Federalism

Why: The Directive Principles set out the social and economic goals the state should pursue, such as reducing poverty and inequality. They are not enforceable in court but guide law and policy.

71.Which statement is/are correct regarding evaluation?
A. According to the National Education Policy 2020, the evaluation of children will be creative and multidimensional (360 degree) in a holistic manner.
B. Formative assessment is competency-based, it promotes learning among students.
C. Criterion-referenced assessment refers to how a student scores in comparison to other students.
D. Norm-referenced assessment refers to how a student’s score compares to a pre-determined standard.
Choose the correct option:

(1) A, C and D only
(2) A, B, C and D
(3) A and D only
(4) A only

Why: NEP 2020 calls for a holistic, 360-degree progress card, so A is right. C and D have been swapped: criterion-referenced assessment compares against a fixed standard, norm-referenced assessment against other students. Every option containing C or D therefore falls away, and only ‘A only’ is left.

72.What should be the sequence the students must follow to prepare a project on the theme, ‘Role of Government in Health System’?
A. Presenting the findings
B. Deciding on the objectives
C. Planning of collection of data
D. Finding the specific sources of data
Choose the correct option:

(1) B, C, D, A
(2) A, C, B, D
(3) A, B, C, D
(4) B, D, C, A

Why: A project starts by setting its objectives, then plans how data will be collected, then locates the particular sources, and ends by presenting the findings.

73.Which of the following sources will provide primary information ‘to teach about challenges faced by women at workplace’?

(1) Biographies
(2) Personal interviews
(3) Textbooks
(4) Newspaper articles

Why: An interview with a working woman gives first-hand information from the person who lived the experience. Biographies, textbooks and newspaper reports are accounts written by others, i.e. secondary sources.

74.Which of the following methods of teaching social science involves students to go beyond textbooks?
A. Project work
B. Lecture
C. Questioning
D. Demonstration
Choose the correct option:

(1) A, B and C
(2) A, C and D
(3) A and B
(4) B and C

Why: Projects send students to other sources, questioning pushes them to think past the text, and a demonstration shows things the book can only describe. A lecture mostly delivers the textbook content, with the students listening.

75.Which one of the following questions will develop critical or logical thinking in students?
A. Open-ended questions
B. Closed-ended questions
C. Exploratory questions
D. Convergent questions
Choose the correct option:

(1) B, C and D
(2) A, C and D
(3) A, B and D
(4) A, B and C

Why: Open-ended and exploratory questions invite students to reason and look at several possibilities. Closed-ended questions, answered with a word or a yes/no, do the least for thinking — and option 2 is the only one that leaves them out. Convergent questions still ask the student to reason step by step towards one answer, which is logical thinking.

76.What is the main objective of peer assessment in the evaluation?

(1) Enabling students to learn to assess and provide constructive feedback.
(2) Making the evaluation process simple and easy for the teacher.
(3) Strengthening social relationships while providing feedback to improve performance of peers.
(4) Providing a structured learning process to critique peer students.

Why: Peer assessment teaches students to judge work against criteria and to give helpful feedback, which sharpens their own understanding too. Lightening the teacher’s load or building friendships are side effects, not the purpose, and it is about constructive feedback rather than critique.

77.During a discussion on the topic “How Weather Forecasts Help Us” in a social studies class, a teacher may:

(1) show a PowerPoint presentation containing the summary of textbook contents.
(2) assign the role of persons involved in different rural and urban professions to students.
(3) show a news clip on weather forecasting.
(4) ask students to draw pictures of different weather conditions.

Why: A real forecast from the news shows what forecasts say and how people use them, which gives the discussion something concrete to work on. A textbook summary adds nothing new, and drawing weather conditions does not touch the forecasting itself.

78.While discussing gender roles in the classroom a teacher should:
A. Suggest different professions for males and females.
B. Offer different types of education to boys and girls.
C. Lay emphasis on challenging gender stereotypes in one’s everyday life.
Choose the correct option:

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) Only C

Why: The point of discussing gender roles is to question stereotypes as they appear in daily life. Steering boys and girls towards different professions or different kinds of education would reinforce those very stereotypes.

79.A learner is continuously getting low marks in social science. Which of the following assessments is required to understand the difficulties?
A. Placement
B. Summative
C. Diagnostic
D. Formative
Choose the correct option:

(1) A and D
(2) Only B
(3) C and D
(4) A and B

Why: Diagnostic assessment pinpoints where and why the learner is struggling, and ongoing formative assessment tracks the difficulty during learning so the teacher can respond. Placement and summative assessment sort or grade; they do not explain the difficulty.

80.Ambika wants to teach her class about land features, ocean currents, volcanoes and climate. Which of the following teaching-learning material should she choose?

(1) Working models, maps, globe
(2) Charts, scrapbooks, graphs
(3) Graphs, pictures, flashcards
(4) Timelines, blackboard, specimens

Why: These are geographical, spatial topics: a globe and maps show where features and currents are, and a working model can show how a volcano erupts. Timelines suit history, and graphs and flashcards cannot show location or process.

81.The objectives of teaching history are to:
A. illustrate the sources used to reconstruct history.
B. appreciate the skills and knowledge of early societies.
C. identify archaeological evidences and making deductions from them.
D. remember all the dates, places and persons whose details are discussed in textbooks.
Choose the correct option:

(1) B, C and D
(2) A, B and D
(3) A, C and D
(4) A, B and C

Why: History teaching aims at understanding how the past is reconstructed from sources, appreciating what earlier societies knew and did, and reasoning from evidence. Memorising every date, place and name is the rote approach the curriculum moves away from.

82.Consider statements (A) and (B):
(A) Cooperative learning and collaborative learning are two different methods to teach social sciences.
(B) In a classroom, each student prepared a presentation on the theme “Our Food” and contributed to the overall theme. This is an example of collaborative learning.
Choose the correct option:

(1) Both (A) and (B) are correct.
(2) Only (A) is correct.
(3) Only (B) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect.

Why: The two are distinct: cooperative learning divides a task into structured roles, while collaborative learning has learners jointly build a shared understanding. In (B) each student’s work feeds a common theme the whole class builds together, which the key treats as collaborative learning.

83.The teacher tells the students that “the temperature decreases with the increase in height up to a certain level of the atmosphere”. Then the students solve problems related to the temperature of different places located at different latitudes. This is an example of ____________.

(1) Constructivist approach
(2) Interdisciplinary approach
(3) Deductive approach
(4) Inductive approach

Why: The general rule comes first and students then apply it to particular cases — general to specific, the deductive approach. Working from examples up to the rule would be inductive.

84.Sonu is a visually disabled student of class VII. With reference to this, choose the correct option from the statements given below:

(1) Social science teacher must modify her teaching and assessment strategies to include him in the normal class.
(2) He must be in a special school.
(3) All students of the class should be sympathetic towards him.
(4) He can study in a normal school, but he should be promoted to the next class without any examination.

Why: Inclusive education asks the teacher to adapt teaching and assessment — tactile maps, audio, oral tests — so that Sonu learns in the regular class. Segregating him, treating him with pity, or skipping his assessment all deny him equal participation.

85.Suppose a middle school social studies teacher assigns a project work on Shivaji. Which of the following would be highly relevant to develop critical thinking?
A. Prescribed textbook
B. Books from school library
C. Details from more than one Internet website
D. Information shared by the teacher in class
E. Information shared in social networking applications
Choose the correct option:

(1) Only A, C, D and E
(2) Only A, B and C
(3) Only A, B, C and D
(4) Only A and D

Why: Comparing several credible sources — the textbook, library books, more than one website and the teacher’s input — is what builds critical thinking. Material forwarded on social networking apps is unverified and often misleading, so it is left out.

86.Which of the questions or activities promote analytical thinking and creativity?
A. The Harappan civilization settled near which river?
B. Make a map of your house.
C. Why are day and night not equal throughout the year?
D. What is the purpose of celebrating festivals?
Choose the correct option:

(1) Only A and B
(2) A, C and D only
(3) Only C and D
(4) Only A and D

Why: The two ‘why’ and ‘what is the purpose’ questions ask students to reason about causes and meanings. A is a one-word recall question, and the key treats B as a practice skill rather than analysis.

87.Which of the following could be the aim of a social science teacher?
A. Making students respond to desired situations.
B. Accepting the student as an active learner.
C. Controlling the free expression of students to maintain discipline.
D. Giving importance to the ambitious behaviour of the students, motivating them to become ambitious.
Choose the correct option:

(1) B only
(2) A, C and D only
(3) A, B, C and D
(4) A only

Why: Treating students as active learners who build their own understanding is the aim NCF sets out. Conditioning them to give desired responses, restricting free expression and fuelling ambition all run counter to it.

88.Which of the following would be the correct sequence of the steps in the 5E model lesson plan?

(1) Evaluate, explain, explore, engage, elaborate
(2) Engage, explore, explain, elaborate, evaluate
(3) Explore, engage, explain, elaborate, evaluate
(4) Explain, elaborate, evaluate, engage, explore

Why: The 5E model runs Engage (arouse interest), Explore (investigate), Explain (build the concept), Elaborate (apply and extend) and Evaluate (assess understanding).

89.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): In the classroom, concepts should be explained to the students through the lived experiences of individuals and communities.
Reason (R): Teaching generalised notes on cultural, social and class differences may generate their own biases, prejudices and attitudes in classroom.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Why: Generalised statements about groups can breed bias and stereotypes in the classroom; grounding concepts in real people’s lived experience avoids that. (R) gives the reason for (A).

90.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Explaining about civilization and culture, the teacher tells the children that social studies is related to culture and civilization and at the same time it affirms the scientific approach.
Reason (R): Social science has nothing to do with art. Science, when combined with society, becomes social science; therefore, it is related only to science.

(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Social studies deals with culture and civilisation while using a scientific method of enquiry, so (A) is true. (R) is false: the subject draws on the arts and humanities as well — history, literature, art — not on science alone.

A silly young cricket, accustomed to sing
Through the warm, sunny months of gay summer and spring,
Began to complain when he found that, at home,
His cupboard was empty, and winter was come.
   Not a crumb to be found
   On the snow-covered ground;
   Not a flower could he see,
   Not a leaf on a tree.
“Oh! what will become,” says the cricket, “of me?”
At last by starvation and famine made bold,
All dripping with wet, and all trembling with cold.
Away he set off to a miserly ant,
To see if, to keep him alive, he would grant
   Him shelter from rain,
   And a mouthful of grain.
   He wished only to borrow;
   He’d repay it tomorrow;
If not, he must die of starvation and sorrow.

91.What did the cricket do in summer?

(1) Sat and played
(2) Sang
(3) Slept and relaxed
(4) Slogged like an ant

Why: The first two lines say he was ‘accustomed to sing’ through the sunny months of summer and spring — singing, not working, which is why his cupboard is empty now.

92.Study the following statements:
A. During winter, it was difficult to dance in the snow-covered ground.
B. However, the cricket could have enjoyed skating.

(1) A is right and B is wrong.
(2) B is right and A is wrong.
(3) Both A and B are right.
(4) Both A and B are wrong.

Why: The poem pictures a harsh winter with the ground under snow and the cricket starving and trembling with cold, so outdoor merriment was out of the question. Nothing in it suggests he could have enjoyed himself skating; his only thought is survival.

93.What made the cricket go to the ant?

(1) Starvation and famine
(2) Empty cupboard
(3) Piles of grains at ant’s place
(4) Approaching winter

Why: The poem says it outright: ‘At last by starvation and famine made bold’, he set off to the ant. The empty cupboard and the winter are the background; hunger is what finally drove him to ask.

94.Which genre does the poem belong to?

(1) Sonnet
(2) Epic
(3) Fable
(4) Lyric

Why: It is a short story in verse with animal characters who speak and act like people, told to teach a lesson — a fable, retelling Aesop’s ant and grasshopper. It is not a fourteen-line sonnet, a long heroic epic, or a lyric of personal feeling.

95.What is the theme of the poem?

(1) We should always keep slogging like the ant.
(2) We should always pursue our hobbies.
(3) If we don’t care for our future, we will eventually suffer.
(4) We should keep partying and dancing.

Why: The cricket enjoyed the good months and made no provision, so winter finds him starving. The lesson is about planning ahead, not about working without rest or chasing pleasure.

96.‘... sunny months of gay summer and spring.’
Identify the figure of speech used in the above line.

(1) Metaphor
(2) Alliteration
(3) Simile
(4) Personification

Why: The repeated initial ‘s’ sound in sunny, summer and spring is alliteration. There is no comparison (simile or metaphor) and no human quality given to a thing.

97.Language classroom often focuses on group and pair work. This also helps in developing an important value associated with an inclusive classroom, which is:

(1) Sympathy
(2) Competition
(3) Collaboration
(4) Envy

Why: Pair and group work have learners working together towards a shared task, which builds collaboration. Competition and envy pull the other way, and sympathy casts some learners as objects of pity rather than equal partners.

98.One day you bring some objects to the class and ask the children to name them. You write their responses on the blackboard and tell them that all these names are used for some objects which are called ‘nouns’ and then give its definition. The method you are using is called:

(1) Deductive method
(2) Incidental method
(3) Inductive method
(4) Direct Method

Why: The lesson moves from examples (the names the children give) to the general rule (the definition of a noun). Going from particular to general is the inductive method; the deductive method would start with the definition.

99.When monolingual speakers move from formal to informal modes of speech in the same spoken or gestured idea, it is called:

(1) Code-mixing
(2) Dialect
(3) Code-switching
(4) Slang

Why: Shifting between varieties or registers of speech in the same exchange is code-switching; even a monolingual speaker switches between formal and informal codes. Code-mixing inserts elements of one language into another, a dialect is a regional or social variety, and slang is informal vocabulary.

100.Some words can have more than one meaning. The meaning of words in a particular language relates to which of the following?

(1) Syntax
(2) Phonology
(3) Morphology
(4) Semantics

Why: Semantics is the study of meaning. Syntax deals with sentence structure, phonology with sound systems and morphology with how words are built.

101.The purpose of remedial teaching is to:

(1) introduce new language items.
(2) teach again, the language items not properly learnt.
(3) test recently taught items.
(4) teach again, the language items already learnt.

Why: Remedial teaching comes after diagnosis and reteaches what learners have not grasped, usually in a different way. Reteaching what is already learnt would be revision, and testing is assessment.

102.Skinner opined that children would repeat sounds if they were followed by a pleasurable response. This viewpoint has its foundation in:

(1) the nativist theory.
(2) observational learning.
(3) the language acquisition device.
(4) operant conditioning.

Why: Behaviour that is reinforced tends to be repeated — Skinner’s operant conditioning. The nativist theory and the language acquisition device belong to Chomsky, and observational learning to Bandura.

103.Based on your observation to develop a particular skill, you decide to use the Direct method in your class. For which skill will you use this method?

(1) Listening skills
(2) Speaking skills
(3) Writing skills
(4) Reading skills

Why: The Direct method teaches through the target language only, with oral interaction, question and answer, and no translation. Its main emphasis is on speaking.

104.Which among the following theorists hypothesized that children have a built-in readiness to learn language?

(1) Skinner
(2) Jim Cummins
(3) Freud
(4) Chomsky

Why: Chomsky proposed that children are born with a language acquisition device, an innate capacity for language. Skinner explained language through reinforcement, and Cummins is known for his work on bilingualism.

105.To learn about the system of rules that govern how words can be meaningfully arranged to form phrases and sentences, you need to study:

(1) Syntax
(2) Morphology
(3) Phonetics
(4) Semantics

Why: Syntax covers how words are combined into phrases and sentences. Morphology is about the structure of words themselves, phonetics about speech sounds and semantics about meaning.

106.If children hear two languages spoken around them, this exposure to two languages will:

(1) not make any difference.
(2) put children at a disadvantage.
(3) put children at an advantage.
(4) confuse them.

Why: Research on bilingualism shows that growing up with two languages benefits children — greater cognitive flexibility and language awareness among other things. The fear that it confuses them is not borne out.

107.Input is defined as the _____________ a learner hears and responds to for its meaning.

(1) Language
(2) Communication
(3) Conversation
(4) Rules

Why: In language acquisition, input is the language a learner is exposed to and processes for meaning. It is the raw material from which the learner acquires the language.

108.Your friend is asked to teach functional grammar. She comes to you for help. You tell her that functional grammar means teaching grammar in/through:

(1) context.
(2) rules supported with examples.
(3) explanation of literary content.
(4) rules in isolation.

Why: Functional grammar teaches how grammar is used to communicate, so it is taught in meaningful context. Presenting rules, with or without examples, is the formal approach it replaces.

109.A ‘Recall-Type’ test is a test of:

(1) Thinking ability
(2) Memory
(3) Understanding
(4) Imagination

Why: Recall-type items — fill-in-the-blank, short answer — ask the learner to bring back information from memory without cues, so they test memory above all.

110.Children are motivated by activities that are:

(1) meaningful to them.
(2) planned by an adult.
(3) meaningful to teachers.
(4) planned by children.

Why: What drives engagement is that the activity makes sense to the child and connects to their life and interests. Who planned it matters less than whether it means something to the learner.

111.You want to identify the deficiencies and difficulties of the learners in your class. Which of the following evaluations would you use for the purpose?

(1) Criterion-referenced evaluation
(2) Summative evaluation
(3) Diagnostic evaluation
(4) Follow-up evaluation

Why: Diagnostic evaluation is designed to find out where learners have gaps and what is causing their difficulty, so that remedial teaching can target it.

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

112.The doctors amputated Aimee’s legs because ____________.

(1) they were disfigured
(2) they were not of the same length
(3) they were not strong
(4) they had no bones

Why: The passage says she was born without shin bones, and the legs were amputated so that she would be able to walk later in life.

113.When Aimee began to use designer legs, she caught the attention of ____________.

(1) sports committees
(2) designers
(3) photographers
(4) the fashion and beauty industry

Why: The last paragraph says the fashion and beauty industry took note of her and asked her to model for and endorse its products.

114.Aimee had a painful childhood because:
A. both her legs did not have bones.
B. she underwent a lot of surgeries.

(1) Only A is correct
(2) Only B is correct
(3) Both A and B are correct
(4) Both A and B are incorrect

Why: The passage links both to her painful childhood: she was born without shin bones, and she went through surgeries at two, five and eight with long stays in hospital.

115.Which of the following statements is true?

(1) The Boston meet was for double amputees only.
(2) Aimee’s mother gave her special care when she was a young child.
(3) Soon Aimee started promoting health products.
(4) At the Boston meet, Aimee was the only one on wooden legs.

Why: She was surprised to find she was the only athlete on wooden legs. The meet was for all disabled athletes, her mother deliberately gave her no special treatment, and she went on to promote beauty products, not health products.

116.At the Boston sports meet, Aimee discovered that all the other athletes had only one artificial leg. That did not discourage her. Instead, she began to do something. What was it?

(1) She decided to enter long jump competition next.
(2) She decided to participate in athletics.
(3) She decided to have designer legs.
(4) She decided to enter the fashion industry.

Why: The discovery made her push herself harder; after winning and breaking a national record, she decided to enter the long jump next — an event double amputees were ‘not supposed’ to enter.

117.Which one of the following words is most similar in meaning to the word, ‘self-sufficient’?

(1) Independent
(2) Needy
(3) Dependent
(4) Helpless

Why: Self-sufficient means able to manage without help from others, which is what independent means. The other three are opposites.

118.Which one of the following words is most opposite to the word, ‘unconventional’?

(1) Innovative
(2) Eccentric
(3) Traditional
(4) Unusual

Why: Unconventional means not following the usual way of doing things; traditional is the opposite. Innovative, eccentric and unusual are all close to it in meaning.

119.Identify the clause in the underlined part of the following sentence.
A year later, she broke the world record in it.

(1) Principal clause
(2) Adverb clause
(3) Adjective clause
(4) Noun clause

Why: The underlined part has its own subject and verb and makes complete sense on its own — it is the principal (main) clause. ‘A year later’ is an adverbial phrase, not a clause.

120.Which part of speech does the underlined word in the following sentence belong to?
Her mother, however, treated her as a self-sufficient person.

(1) Adverb
(2) Interjection
(3) Conjunction
(4) Adjective

Why: ‘However’ here is a conjunctive adverb: set off by commas, it modifies the whole sentence to show contrast. Unlike a conjunction such as ‘but’, it does not join two clauses.

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

121.निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्द भिन्न है?

(1) धैर्य
(2) क्षमा
(3) दुर्बल
(4) क्रोध

Why: धैर्य, क्षमा और क्रोध भाववाचक संज्ञाएँ हैं। ‘दुर्बल’ गुणवाचक विशेषण है, इसलिए यह भिन्न है।

122.‘ऊँचाई प्राप्त करने का एक सशक्त माध्यम है।’ इस वाक्य में ‘सशक्त’ एक ______________ विशेषण है।

(1) परिमाणवाचक
(2) गुणवाचक
(3) सार्वनामिक
(4) संख्यावाचक

Why: ‘सशक्त’ माध्यम का गुण बताता है — कैसा माध्यम? सशक्त। इसलिए यह गुणवाचक विशेषण है।

123.क्षमा क्या नहीं है?

(1) आत्म साधना
(2) आत्मा का स्वभाव
(3) आत्मा का आभूषण
(4) आत्मा का नैसर्गिक गुण

Why: गद्यांश क्षमा को आत्मा का आभूषण, आत्मा का नैसर्गिक गुण और आत्मा का स्वभाव कहता है। उसे ‘आत्म साधना’ नहीं कहा गया; क्षमाशीलता को साधना-सिद्धि का राजपथ बताया गया है।

124.गंतव्य पर कौन पहुँचता है?

(1) क्षमाशील और शांत चित्त व्यक्ति
(2) श्रेष्ठ और कुलीन व्यक्ति
(3) शांत चित्त और धैर्यवान व्यक्ति
(4) समर्थ और धैर्यवान व्यक्ति

Why: अंतिम वाक्य के अनुसार जो व्यक्ति प्रतिकूल पगडंडियों पर क्षमाशीलता अपनाते हुए शांत चित्त होकर आगे बढ़ता है, वही गंतव्य पर सफलतापूर्वक पहुँचता है।

125.धर्म का दरवाजा किसके लिए खुलता है?

(1) क्षमा न माँगने वाले व्यक्ति के लिए
(2) क्षमादान न करने वाले के लिए
(3) क्षमादान का अभ्यास करने वाले के लिए
(4) क्षमा माँगने वाले के लिए

Why: गद्यांश कहता है कि जिसने क्षमादान का अभ्यास नहीं किया, उसके लिए धर्म का दरवाजा कभी नहीं खुलता — अर्थात् वह क्षमादान का अभ्यास करने वाले के लिए खुलता है।

126.व्यक्तित्व का महत्त्वपूर्ण घटक क्या है?

(1) क्रोध
(2) गरिमा
(3) इंद्रिय संयम
(4) क्षमा

Why: गद्यांश में स्पष्ट लिखा है: क्षमा व्यक्ति के व्यक्तित्व का सबसे महत्त्वपूर्ण घटक है।

127.क्षमा करना कौन जानता है?

(1) समर्थवान व्यक्ति
(2) सक्षम व्यक्ति
(3) आत्मबलहीन व्यक्ति
(4) क्रोधहीन व्यक्ति

Why: गद्यांश के शब्द हैं ‘समर्थ ही क्षमा करना जानता है’; जिसके पास आत्मबल नहीं, वह क्षमा नहीं कर सकता।

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

128.निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्द भिन्न है?

(1) सहनशीलता
(2) सँभालता
(3) सहिष्णुता
(4) महानता

Why: सहनशीलता, सहिष्णुता और महानता ‘-ता’ प्रत्यय से बनी भाववाचक संज्ञाएँ हैं। ‘सँभालता’ संज्ञा नहीं, ‘सँभालना’ क्रिया का रूप है (वह सँभालता है)।

129.अक्षम लोग में ‘लोग’ ___________ संज्ञा है।

(1) गणनीय
(2) निर्जीव
(3) समूहवाचक
(4) व्यक्तिवाचक

Why: ‘लोग’ व्यक्तियों के समूह का बोध कराता है, इसलिए यह समूहवाचक संज्ञा है।

130.सामर्थ्ययुक्त, पुरुषार्थहीन और अधैर्यवान _____________ शब्द हैं।

(1) विशेषण
(2) क्रिया-विशेषण
(3) संज्ञा
(4) सर्वनाम

Why: तीनों शब्द संज्ञा की विशेषता बताते हैं — सामर्थ्ययुक्त गुण, पुरुषार्थहीन लोग, अधैर्यवान लोग। इसलिए ये विशेषण हैं।

131.क्षमा माँगने से व्यक्ति का कद _____________।

(1) समान रहता है
(2) पहले से घट जाता है
(3) पहले से बढ़ जाता है
(4) बदल जाता है

Why: गलती पर क्षमा माँगने से मन में विनयशीलता का भाव उपजता है, और गद्यांश के अनुसार इससे व्यक्ति का कद पहले की अपेक्षा और अधिक बढ़ जाता है।

132.वाक्य पूरा कीजिए :
अहमवश अपनी ग़लती न मानकर _____________।

(1) क्षमा माँग लेते हैं
(2) क्षमा नहीं माँगते
(3) क्षमा माँगने में संकोच करते हैं
(4) क्षमा दान कर देते हैं

Why: गद्यांश में यही बात है: अहम के वशीभूत होकर जब हम अपनी ग़लती नहीं स्वीकारते, तो क्षमा के विषय में संकोच करते हैं।

133._____________ लोग क्षमा को कायरता कहते हैं।

(1) सहिष्णु
(2) उदार
(3) क्षमाशील
(4) पुरुषार्थहीन

Why: गद्यांश के अनुसार सहिष्णुता, उदारता जैसे गुण पुरुषार्थहीन या अधैर्यवान लोगों में उत्पन्न नहीं हो सकते, और इन गुणों को पाने में अक्षम लोग ही क्षमा को कायरता बताते हैं।

134.क्षमा करने से व्यक्तित्व में क्या प्रकट नहीं होता?

(1) कायरता
(2) सरलता
(3) आनंद
(4) तेजस्विता

Why: गद्यांश कहता है कि क्षमा में लेशमात्र भी कायरता नहीं है; उलटे वह व्यक्तित्व में तेजस्विता उत्पन्न करती है।

135.समय-समय पर ग्लानि की अनुभूति कब होती है?

(1) जब हम क्षमा माँगने में संकोच करते हैं।
(2) जब हम क्षमा माँग लेते हैं।
(3) जब हम ग़लती स्वीकार लेते हैं।
(4) जब हम क्षमा दे देते हैं।

Why: गद्यांश के अनुसार अहमवश गलती न मानकर हम क्षमा माँगने में संकोच करते हैं; तब हृदय में ग्लानि तो होती है, पर हम उसे उजागर होने से रोक देते हैं।

136.एक शिक्षक होने के नाते, आप अपनी कक्षा में शिक्षण करते समय श्रव्य-दृश्य सामग्री और शारीरिक गतिविधियों का प्रयोग करना पसंद करते हैं। आप ऐसा इसलिए करते हैं क्योंकि इससे :

(1) आपको कक्षा में आराम के मौके मिल जाते हैं।
(2) शिक्षार्थियों का ध्यान दूसरी तरफ लग जाता है।
(3) आकलन प्रभावशाली रूप से हो पाता है।
(4) अधिगम संवर्द्धन हेतु इन्द्रियों का अधिकतम संख्या में उपयोग होता है।

Why: श्रव्य-दृश्य सामग्री और शारीरिक गतिविधियाँ देखने, सुनने और करने — कई इन्द्रियों को एक साथ जोड़ती हैं, और जितनी अधिक इन्द्रियाँ जुड़ती हैं, अधिगम उतना ही गहरा और टिकाऊ होता है।

137.आपने अपने विद्यार्थी की उत्तर-पुस्तिका को पढ़ा और उसमें अपनी टिप्पणियाँ लिखीं। यह किसका उदाहरण है?

(1) दैनिक टिप्पणियाँ
(2) मूल्यांकन
(3) पृष्ठपोषण (फीडबैक)
(4) उत्तर-पुस्तिका की जाँच

Why: काम पर लिखी टिप्पणियाँ विद्यार्थी को बताती हैं कि वह कैसा कर रहा है और क्या सुधारना है — यही पृष्ठपोषण है, जो जाँच का उद्देश्य है।

138.अच्छे वक्ताओं के पास किस तरह की योग्यता होती है?

(1) भावानुवाद/व्याख्या करने की
(2) तुरंत विश्लेषण करने की
(3) बोध की
(4) अनुवाद करने की

Why: अच्छा वक्ता श्रोता के न समझने पर बात को दूसरे शब्दों में कह सकता है और श्रोताओं के अनुसार ढाल सकता है। यह भावानुवाद (पैराफ्रेज़िंग) बोलने का कौशल है; बोध सुनने-पढ़ने की योग्यता है।

139.आपकी कक्षा का एक विद्यार्थी राकेश अकसर काल रूप की ग़लतियाँ करता है। इस समस्या से उबरने के लिए आप :

(1) राकेश को नियम सिखाने के लिए डाँट सकते हैं।
(2) राकेश को अपनी नोटबुक में दस बार नियम लिखने के लिए कह सकते हैं।
(3) उसे व्याकरण के नियम समझा सकते हैं।
(4) समूची कक्षा में कई उदाहरण प्रस्तुत कर सकते हैं और राकेश पर विशेष ध्यान दे सकते हैं।

Why: प्रयोग में बहुत से उदाहरण पूरी कक्षा की मदद करते हैं, और व्यक्तिगत ध्यान राकेश को अलग किए बिना सहारा देता है। डाँटना, नियम बार-बार लिखवाना या नियम अलग से समझाना काल के सही प्रयोग की क्षमता नहीं बनाते।

140.आप सर्वाधिक रूप से उपयुक्त शिक्षण सामग्री का चयन करना चाह रहे हैं? सही शिक्षण सामग्री के चयन के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा बिन्दु प्रासंगिक नहीं है?

(1) यह जरूरी नहीं कि इसकी विशिष्ट शैक्षिक महत्ता हो।
(2) यह बाल-केन्द्रित होना चाहिए।
(3) यह कक्षा में पढ़ाए जा रहे विषय के समरूप होना चाहिए।
(4) यह प्रयोग के संदर्भ में सरल और सादा होना चाहिए।

Why: शिक्षण सामग्री का उद्देश्य ही सीखने में मदद करना है, इसलिए उसकी शैक्षिक महत्ता होनी चाहिए। बाल-केन्द्रित, विषय के अनुरूप और सरल होना सही मानदंड हैं।

141.निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा उद्गामी साक्षरता से संबंधित नहीं है?

(1) मुद्रित/लिखित सामग्री के प्रति समझ बनाना
(2) आरंभिक ध्वन्यात्मक जागरूकता
(3) नोट (टिप्पणी) लेना
(4) आधारभूत वर्णमाला ज्ञान

Why: उद्गामी साक्षरता वह है जो छोटे बच्चे औपचारिक शिक्षण से पहले पढ़ने-लिखने के बारे में जानते हैं: छपे शब्द का अर्थ होता है, ध्वनियों की पहचान, आरंभिक वर्ण-ज्ञान। नोट लेना एक उच्च अध्ययन-कौशल है।

142.चुनौती बाधित कुछ बच्चों ने एक नए विद्यालय में प्रवेश लिया। अध्यापकों ने भिन्न-भिन्न प्रकार से अपनी प्रतिक्रिया व्यक्त की। कौन-सी प्रतिक्रिया समावेशी शिक्षा की अवधारणा को प्रतिबिम्बित करती है?

(1) “ओफ्फो! मैं ऐसे बच्चों को कैसे पढ़ा सकती हूँ जो सुन ही नहीं सकते?”
(2) “अरे वाह! इस तरह से बच्चों को एक-दूसरे की मदद करने व सहयोग करने के अच्छे अवसर मिलेंगे।”
(3) “ओफ्फो! ये बच्चे कक्षा के दूसरे बच्चों के साथ कैसे घुल-मिल पाएँगे?”
(4) “अरे! इन बच्चों के लिए तो एक पृथक अनुभाग होना चाहिए।”

Why: समावेशन सभी बच्चों का एक ही कक्षा में स्वागत करता है और उनकी उपस्थिति को सबके लिए समृद्ध करने वाला मानता है। बाकी प्रतिक्रियाएँ संदेह, चिंता या अलग करने की इच्छा दिखाती हैं।

143.आपको कक्षा में विमर्श करना बहुत अच्छा लगता है क्योंकि :

(1) यह शिक्षार्थियों के योगदान को महत्त्व नहीं देता है।
(2) यह वाक् में स्पष्टता और विशिष्टता प्रदान करता है।
(3) यह शिक्षार्थियों को चिंतन करने के लिए शायद ही प्रेरित करता है।
(4) यह आपको अध्यापक होने की सत्ता प्रदान करता है।

Why: कक्षा में नियमित विमर्श से शिक्षार्थियों को विचार व्यक्त करने का अभ्यास मिलता है, जिससे उनकी वाणी स्पष्ट और सधी हुई होती है। बाकी विकल्प विमर्श के उलटे प्रभाव बताते हैं।

144.निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा वाक्य वायगोत्सकी और पियाज़े के सिद्धान्त के मध्य महत्त्वपूर्ण अन्तर पर प्रकाश डालता है?

(1) भाषा और विचार के मध्य संबंध
(2) अर्थ-निर्माण की प्रक्रिया में बच्चों की रचनात्मक/वस्तुपरक भूमिका
(3) यह समझ कि बच्चे सक्रिय/निष्क्रिय रूप से शुरुआत करते हैं
(4) यह समझना कि अधिगम एक सरल/जटिल प्रक्रिया है

Why: पियाज़े के अनुसार विचार पहले विकसित होता है और भाषा उसे प्रतिबिंबित करती है; वायगोत्सकी के अनुसार सामाजिक भाषा से विचार आकार लेता है। दोनों बच्चों को अर्थ का सक्रिय निर्माता मानते हैं, इसलिए अंतर वहाँ नहीं है।

145.सम्प्रेषणात्मक भाषा शिक्षण में सर्वाधिक महत्त्वपूर्ण तथ्य :

(1) अर्थ
(2) भाषा की संरचना
(3) लेखन कौशल
(4) व्याकरण के नियमों को कंठस्थ करना

Why: सम्प्रेषणात्मक भाषा शिक्षण में अर्थ और वास्तविक संप्रेषण सबसे पहले है; संरचना की शुद्धता महत्त्वपूर्ण है, पर वह अर्थ पहुँचाने की सेवा में है।

146.किस वक्ता में कोड-मिश्रण में संलग्न होने की सबसे अधिक संभावना होगी?

(1) एकलभाषी वयस्क – सत्यवीर
(2) द्विभाषी बालक – गर्व
(3) द्विभाषी वयस्क – मीरा
(4) एकलभाषी बालिका – अर्पिता

Why: कोड-मिश्रण के लिए दो भाषाएँ चाहिए, इसलिए एकलभाषी वक्ता बाहर हो जाते हैं। द्विभाषी बच्चा, जिसकी दोनों भाषाओं की शब्दावली अभी बन रही है, जिस भाषा में शब्द मिले उसी का प्रयोग कर लेता है — इसलिए उसमें मिश्रण सबसे अधिक होता है।

147.आपकी जानकारी में यह बात आई कि कक्षा IV की विद्यार्थी मंदाकिनी काल के संबंध में अकसर ग़लतियाँ करती है। आप इस संबंध में मंदाकिनी की मदद कैसे करेंगे?

(1) उसे जीवन की वास्तविक परिस्थितियों से जुड़े उदाहरण प्रस्तुत करेंगे जिनमें वह कालों का प्रयोग कर सके
(2) उसे कालों के नियम अच्छी तरह से कंठस्थ करने के लिए कहेंगे
(3) व्याकरण के नियम समझाएँगे या लिखवाएँगे
(4) मंदाकिनी को अपनी नोटबुक में दस बार काल लिखने के लिए कहेंगे

Why: काल सार्थक परिस्थितियों में प्रयोग करके सीखे जाते हैं। नियम रटना या बार-बार लिखना वास्तविक प्रयोग में नहीं बदलता।

148.एक भाषा अध्यापिका अपनी कक्षा में समस्या-समाधान विधि को प्रभावशाली तरीके से संचालित करना चाहती है। उसे क्या करना चाहिए?

(1) विद्यार्थियों को अपने अभिभावकों से परामर्श लेने के लिए कहना चाहिए
(2) विद्यार्थियों की गतिविधियों का दूर से ही अवलोकन करना चाहिए
(3) अपसारी चिंतन (डाइवरजेंट) को प्रोत्साहित करना चाहिए
(4) प्रक्रिया में सक्रिय रूप से भाग लेना चाहिए

Why: समस्या-समाधान तभी सफल होता है जब शिक्षार्थी अलग-अलग विचार और रास्ते सोचने को स्वतंत्र हों। विधि अपसारी चिंतन पर ही टिकी है; अध्यापिका सुविधादाता रहती है, न पूरी तरह हावी न बिल्कुल अलग।

149.एक श्रोता एक श्रव्य सामग्री सुनते समय मुख्य विचार सुनता है, अनुमान लगाता है, निष्कर्ष निकालता है और सारांशीकरण करता है। इन युक्तियों को क्या कहा जाएगा?

(1) अधो-शीर्षगामी (बॉटम-अप) प्रक्रियाएँ
(2) शीर्ष-अधोगामी (टॉप-डाउन) प्रक्रियाएँ
(3) संज्ञानात्मक प्रक्रियाएँ
(4) विश्लेषणात्मक प्रक्रियाएँ

Why: पूर्वज्ञान के सहारे मुख्य बात पकड़ना, अनुमान लगाना, निष्कर्ष निकालना और सार बनाना शीर्ष-अधोगामी प्रक्रिया है। अधो-शीर्षगामी प्रक्रिया ध्वनि, शब्द, व्याकरण जैसी छोटी इकाइयों से अर्थ बनाती है।

150.ध्वनिग्रामिक जागरूकता किससे संबंधित है?

(1) बोले जा रहे शब्दों में ध्वनिग्राम की पहचान करने और उनमें हेर-फेर करने की क्षमता
(2) ध्वनिग्राम और ग्राफ़ीम के बीच संबंध स्थापित करने की योग्यता
(3) शब्दों को सही तरीके से और प्रवाह के साथ पढ़ना
(4) सही वर्तनी के साथ लिखना

Why: [KEY] CBSE की अंतिम उत्तर-कुंजी विकल्प 2 को सही मानती है (अंग्रेज़ी भाषा II के प्र. 150 में भी यही)। मानक परिभाषा में ध्वनिग्रामिक जागरूकता पूर्णतः मौखिक क्षमता है — बोले गए शब्दों में ध्वनियों को पहचानना और उनमें हेर-फेर करना, यानी विकल्प 1; ध्वनिग्राम को ग्राफ़ीम (वर्ण) से जोड़ना ‘फ़ोनिक्स’ है। अंक विकल्प 2 पर दिए गए।

CTET February 2026 — Paper II (Social Studies)

Choose your language papers

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026
Paper II (Social Studies)

Part I — Child Development and Pedagogy

Part III — Social Studies / Social Science

Part IV — Language I — English

Part V — Language II — Hindi

Answer Key

CTET February 2026 — Paper II (Social Studies)

Choose your language papers

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026Paper II (Social Studies)

Part I — Child Development and Pedagogy

Part III — Social Studies / Social Science

Part IV — Language I — English

Part V — Language II — Hindi

Answer Key

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026
Paper II (Social Studies)