MAK LABS — CTET 1 March 2026 Paper II (Maths and Science) Question Paper with Answer Key

1.An effective strategy for solving ill-defined problems is:

(1) Focusing on functional fixedness
(2) Means-Ends analysis
(3) Algorithms
(4) Learning by rote

Why: An ill-defined problem has no clear path to the goal, so an algorithm cannot be applied. Means-ends analysis works backwards from the goal, breaking the gap into sub-goals and closing them one by one. Functional fixedness is a barrier to problem-solving, and rote learning has nothing to offer a new problem.

2.Which of the following set of qualities characterizes critical thinking?
(i) Ability to question
(ii) Ability to self-reflect
(iii) Ability to test previously held assumptions
(iv) Ability to think convergently
Choose the correct option:

(1) (i) and (iv)
(2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i) and (ii)

Why: Questioning, reflecting on one’s own reasoning and testing one’s own assumptions are the core of critical thinking. Convergent thinking — narrowing down to one expected answer — is not what defines it, so (iv) is the odd one out.

3.Which of the following statement about the role of heredity and environment in the development of a child is correct?

(1) While heredity contributes in unfolding of the child’s characteristic traits, the entirety of a child’s development is solely based on environmental factors.
(2) While heredity provides the genetic blueprint for an individual’s development, the expression of those genes can be influenced by environmental factors.
(3) Both heredity and environment contribute 50% each in the development of a child.
(4) Dispositions are linked with environmental factors but actual development occurs on the basis of heredity.

Why: Heredity and environment interact: genes set the possibilities, and the environment shapes how they are expressed. Option 1 and option 4 each hand development to one side alone, and no fixed 50–50 split exists.

4.Arpita and Anu give their books to each other since both consider it ‘an equal exchange of favours’. At which level of Kohlberg’s moral development theory are Arpita and Anu?

(1) Heteronomous level
(2) Post-conventional level
(3) Conventional level
(4) Pre-conventional level

Why: [KEY] The CBSE final key credits option 1. In Kohlberg’s scheme, Stage 1 is called heteronomous morality, and the “you help me, I help you” reasoning shown here is Stage 2, instrumental exchange. Both stages sit at the pre-conventional level, so textbooks would point to option 4. The key, however, has taken the heteronomous (externally governed) label as the answer, and candidates were marked on option 1.

5.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): When unable to ‘make meaning’, efficient readers slow down and reread the text clarifying confusion before continuing further.
Reason (R): Metacognition hinders the process of meaning-making.

(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Slowing down and rereading when meaning breaks down is exactly what skilled readers do, so (A) is true. That behaviour is metacognition at work — monitoring one’s own understanding — which helps meaning-making rather than hindering it, so (R) is false.

6.Which of the following sets describe ways in which a school should be inclusive?
(i) Modification of curriculum as required
(ii) Expecting students to totally adapt to the school’s culture
(iii) Fostering an ethos of care and respect
(iv) Opportunities for collaborative learning
Choose the correct option:

(1) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Why: An inclusive school changes itself to fit its learners: it adapts the curriculum, builds a caring climate and lets children learn together. Expecting children to adapt entirely to the school puts the burden the wrong way round, so (ii) is excluded.

7.Which of the following statement about socialization is correct?

(1) Socialization cultivates shared sources of meaning and value.
(2) Socialization is culture-independent and context-neutral.
(3) Socialization happens only during childhood.
(4) Norms and beliefs cannot be acquired through socialization process.

Why: Through socialization a child takes on the meanings, values and norms shared by the group. It is always shaped by culture and context, it continues through life, and acquiring norms and beliefs is precisely what it does.

8.Role of a teacher in ‘reciprocal teaching’ is characterized by:

(1) a shift from being a support and guide towards gradual release of responsibility to the students.
(2) being a mere recipient of the suggestions given by students.
(3) the position of dominance and sole authority to disseminate the information to students.
(4) his/her position of being a passive observer throughout the process.

Why: In reciprocal teaching the teacher first models the strategies of predicting, questioning, clarifying and summarising, then hands the lead to students step by step. That gradual release is the defining feature; the teacher is neither dominant nor passive.

9.An assessment approach aiming to support students’ learning is characterized by:

(1) Consideration of method of solving the problem along with the outcome.
(2) Focus on inaccuracies only while ignoring the process and endeavours.
(3) Exams done at the end of the year through objective type questions.
(4) Evaluation and marking based on standardized quiz-based tests.

Why: Assessment for learning looks at how a student reached the answer, not only at the answer, because the method shows where help is needed. Counting only errors, year-end objective tests and standardised quizzes all judge the product and say little about the process.

10.Which of the following is an effective strategy of emotional regulation?

(1) Channelling emotions to use them as a source of inspiration and creative endeavours
(2) Waiting until emotions escalate to the point of losing control
(3) Reacting impulsively to emotional triggers
(4) Suppressing emotions in order to conform to social norms

Why: Regulating an emotion means directing it into something constructive. Letting it escalate or reacting on impulse is the absence of regulation, and suppression only hides the feeling without managing it.

11.Learning about a concept/category is easier if:

(1) previous knowledge about the concept is not activated.
(2) concept is represented in abstract and complex ways.
(3) familiar examples are provided while introducing the concept.
(4) lots of advanced information is given to create cognitive load.

Why: Familiar examples link the new concept to what the learner already knows, which makes it easier to grasp. Not activating prior knowledge, presenting the concept abstractly and piling on cognitive load all make learning harder.

12.According to Jean Piaget, what is the role of symbolic thought in cognitive development?

(1) Symbolic thought develops after cognitive development is complete.
(2) Symbolic thought impacts cognitive development only in children with language delays.
(3) Symbolic thought causes mental confusion and hinders cognitive development.
(4) Symbolic thought facilitates cognitive development by allowing for mental processes like problem-solving.

Why: For Piaget, the ability to let one thing stand for another — words, images, pretend play — emerges in the pre-operational stage and lets the child think about objects that are not present. That opens the way to mental problem-solving, so it drives development rather than following or hindering it.

13.Which of the following typical characteristics is a child struggling with dysgraphia likely to show?

(1) Aggression, frustration and stress
(2) Impulsiveness; difficulty in concentrating and forgetfulness
(3) Slow in written work; makes poorly formed letters, has difficulty copying from blackboard
(4) Withdrawal, guilt and anxiety

Why: Dysgraphia is a difficulty with writing, so the signs are in written work: slowness, badly formed letters and trouble copying. Option 2 describes attention difficulties, and options 1 and 4 are emotional reactions that may accompany many problems.

14.A teacher is providing learners with the chances to be exposed to and analyze concepts in order to help them understand the content through her support. This is an example of:

(1) Expository teaching
(2) Guided discovery
(3) Pre-dispositional learning
(4) Observational modelling

Why: Learners explore and analyse the concepts themselves while the teacher supports and steers them — that is guided discovery. Expository teaching would present the content ready-made, and observational modelling means learning by watching a model.

15.Which of the following statements is correct about gender development in contemporary times?

(1) Gender is purely and solely determined by an individual’s anatomy at birth.
(2) Gender exists on a binary concept – one is either male or female.
(3) Gender identity is influenced by cultural conceptions.
(4) Gender identity is not influenced by socialization.

Why: Gender identity is shaped by the ideas a culture holds about gender and by the socialization a child receives. Treating it as fixed by anatomy, strictly binary, or untouched by socialization runs against the current understanding.

16.Which of the following hinders problem-solving?

(1) Breaking down large complex problems into manageable smaller problems
(2) Fixating on a single trait of a composite problem
(3) Applying algorithms and heuristics
(4) Using a solution which was effective in solving a similar problem earlier

Why: Getting stuck on one feature of a many-sided problem blocks the solver from seeing the rest of it. Breaking a problem into parts, using algorithms and heuristics, and transferring a solution that worked before are all aids.

17.Activities which ______________ are detrimental to students’ motivation to learn.

(1) are moderately difficult for students
(2) connect with real life of students
(3) cater to students’ needs and interests
(4) aim at intangible goals decided solely by the teacher

Why: Goals that students cannot see and had no part in setting give them no reason to engage. Moderate challenge, real-life connection and attention to their needs and interests all build motivation.

18.Following Lev Vygotsky’s ideas on learning, a teacher should:

(1) encourage students to continually compete with each other.
(2) prevent integration of cultural knowledge in discussions.
(3) capitalize on dialogue and group learning during activities.
(4) discourage verbalization and thinking aloud among students.

Why: Vygotsky saw learning as social: children learn through talk and joint activity with others. Dialogue and group work follow directly from that. Constant competition, keeping culture out and discouraging talk all cut against his view.

19.Jean Piaget gave importance to ____________ in the course of development and learning.

(1) exam-centric pedagogy
(2) conditioning of behaviour
(3) children’s maturation and readiness to learn
(4) cultural tools

Why: Piaget held that children move through stages as they mature, and can only learn what their current stage makes them ready for. Conditioning belongs to behaviourism and cultural tools to Vygotsky.

20.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Teachers should ensure enough ‘wait time’, which is the length of time a teacher pauses, after asking a question.
Reason (R): Diversity is an asset and not an obstacle.

(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Enough wait time gives more students the chance to think and respond, so (A) is true. Diversity being a resource is also true, but it is a separate principle; the case for wait time rests on thinking time, not on diversity.

21.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Children learn most effectively when they are criticized frequently for their mistakes.
Reason (R): Frequent criticism makes children self-reliant which helps in improving their academic performance.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Frequent criticism breeds fear and loss of confidence, which gets in the way of learning, so (A) is false. It does not build self-reliance either, so (R) is false too. Mistakes are better treated as a window into the child’s thinking.

22.Inclusion of students belonging to disadvantaged backgrounds requires:

(1) identity-based segregation of students.
(2) consideration of socio-cultural diversity.
(3) execution of standardized curriculum.
(4) tradition of exam-centered pedagogy.

Why: Including children from disadvantaged backgrounds means taking their social and cultural contexts into account in what and how they are taught. Segregation excludes them outright, and a standardised curriculum or exam-centred teaching ignores the very differences inclusion must respond to.

23.Contemporary theorists believe that childhood is:

(1) A life stage that is awaiting adulthood.
(2) A stage associated with divinity, purity and goodness.
(3) Merely a transitional stage.
(4) Variable and dynamic.

Why: Current thinking treats childhood as socially constructed: it differs across cultures, classes and periods, and it changes. Seeing it only as a waiting room for adulthood, a transition, or a romantic state of purity are older views.

24.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): A middle school language arts teacher selects stories and clippings from newspapers and magazines that portray men and women in non-traditional roles.
Reason (R): Countering prevalent gender stereotypes by presenting other models is an effective way to overcome gender bias.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Why: The teacher’s choice of materials in (A) is a sound practice, and (R) gives the reason for it: showing people in non-stereotyped roles challenges gender bias. So both are true and (R) explains (A).

25.The process of bringing back the information stored in memory to current state is called _____________.

(1) Forgetting
(2) Decay
(3) Retrieval
(4) Attention

Why: Retrieval is the recall of stored information into present awareness. Forgetting and decay are failures to do so, and attention operates when information first comes in.

26.Which of the following statements about classroom assessment is correct?

(1) Use of norm-referenced assessment that compares performance of the student to that of peers motivates students to learn more meaningfully.
(2) Focus of assessment should be paper-pencil assessment rather than non-written behaviours to maintain objectivity.
(3) Formative assessment should include tasks which inform teachers about what students know about the concept before they begin teaching.
(4) Summative assessment does not serve any purpose and should not be undertaken since the process is more important than the final learning outcome.

Why: Finding out what students already know before teaching a concept is a formative purpose: it shapes how the teacher plans. Comparing students with peers breeds competition rather than meaning, limiting assessment to paper-pencil misses much of learning, and summative assessment does have a role.

27.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Adaptations such as audio tapes, use of computer software which provides text-to-speech input, extended time to complete assignments, facilitate learning for students who are visually challenged.
Reason (R): Teachers should adapt the curriculum to provide equity and meet the needs of diverse learners.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Why: The adaptations in (A) do help visually challenged students, and they are one application of the principle in (R): adapting the curriculum so that diverse learners get equal access. Both are true and (R) explains (A).

28.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Adolescents have difficulty with emotional regulation and inhibiting their impulses and are quite susceptible to peer pressure.
Reason (R): Physiological and hormonal changes during adolescence impact the behaviour of adolescents in a variety of ways.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(2) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Adolescents do find it harder to regulate emotions and resist impulses and peer pressure, and the hormonal and physical changes of the period are a main cause of that. Both are true and (R) explains (A).

29.Gifted children:

(1) excel in all academic as well as co-curricular areas.
(2) exhibit high cognitive abilities as well as skills of social communication.
(3) get distracted easily and have low concentration span.
(4) absorb information quickly and accurately.

Why: Taking in information fast and accurately is a typical mark of giftedness. It is a myth that gifted children excel everywhere or always have strong social skills, and easy distraction describes attention difficulties rather than giftedness.

30.Which of the following statements about language and cognition is not correct as per Lev Vygotsky’s theory?

(1) Language development hinders cognitive development.
(2) Inner speech is used for mental reasoning.
(3) Language inevitably affects the way a child thinks.
(4) External speech is used to converse with others.

Why: For Vygotsky language is the main tool of thought: external speech is for communicating, inner speech for reasoning, and language shapes how a child thinks. The claim that language development hinders cognition is the opposite of his view, so it is the incorrect statement.

31.The greatest number which can divide the numbers 282, 696 and 1616, leaving the same remainder 6 in each case, is:

(1) 48
(2) 23
(3) 24
(4) 46

Why: Take away the remainder first: 276, 690 and 1610 must all be exact multiples. 276 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 23, 690 = 2 × 3 × 5 × 23 and 1610 = 2 × 5 × 7 × 23, so their HCF is 2 × 23 = 46.

32.Which of the following is not written correctly in Roman Numerals?

(1) XXV
(2) LXXII
(3) LXIII
(4) VXII

Why: V, L and D are never written before a larger numeral to subtract from it, so ‘VX’ is not allowed. XXV = 25, LXXII = 72 and LXIII = 63 are all correct.

33.If (5 − 7x) / (8 + 3x) = −40/7, then what is the value of (2x + 3) / (x + 9)?

(1) −⁷⁄₄
(2) ¹¹⁄₁₃
(3) −⁵⁄₂
(4) ¹³⁄₁₄

Why: Cross-multiply: 7(5 − 7x) = −40(8 + 3x), so 35 − 49x = −320 − 120x, giving 71x = −355 and x = −5. Then (2x + 3)/(x + 9) = (−10 + 3)/(−5 + 9) = −7/4.

34.The length of a diagonal of a square is 8 cm. If its area (in cm²) is y, then value of (3y − 15) is:

(1) 75
(2) 81
(3) 96
(4) 85

Why: Area of a square = (diagonal)² ÷ 2 = 64 ÷ 2 = 32, so y = 32 and 3y − 15 = 96 − 15 = 81.

35.A certain sum becomes ₹ 6,300 at 10% p.a. in 4 years at simple interest. What will be the amount of the same sum in 2 years at the same rate, if interest is compounded yearly?

(1) ₹ 5,566
(2) ₹ 5,445
(3) ₹ 5,324
(4) ₹ 5,082

Why: Simple interest for 4 years at 10% is 40% of the principal, so 1.4P = 6300 and P = ₹ 4,500. Compounded yearly for 2 years: 4500 × 1.1 × 1.1 = ₹ 5,445.

36.The expression 9x² − 12xy + 21x + 4y² − 14y + 12 is factorised as:

(1) (3x − 2y + 3) (3x − 2y + 4)
(2) (3x − 2y + 2) (3x − 2y + 6)
(3) (3x + 2y − 2) (3x + 2y − 6)
(4) (3x + 2y − 3) (3x + 2y − 4)

Why: Group the terms: 9x² − 12xy + 4y² = (3x − 2y)², and 21x − 14y = 7(3x − 2y). With a = 3x − 2y the expression is a² + 7a + 12 = (a + 3)(a + 4).

37.In a parallelogram PQRS, ∠P = 2x + 20°, ∠Q = 2y − 40°, ∠R = 5x − 100° and ∠S = 3y − 100°. Then, the value of (x + y) is equal to:

(1) 100°
(2) 120°
(3) 140°
(4) 160°

Why: Opposite angles of a parallelogram are equal. ∠P = ∠R gives 2x + 20 = 5x − 100, so x = 40. ∠Q = ∠S gives 2y − 40 = 3y − 100, so y = 60. Hence x + y = 100°.

38.Two alternate interior angles formed by the intersection of two parallel lines by a transversal are (5y − 10°) and (7y − 90°). Then, the value of (3y − 20°) is:

(1) 90°
(2) 110°
(3) 120°
(4) 100°

Why: Alternate interior angles are equal, so 5y − 10 = 7y − 90, giving y = 40. Then 3y − 20 = 120 − 20 = 100°.

39.⁵⁄₇ of ³⁵⁄₁₂ ÷ ²⁸⁄₉ + ⁹⁶⁄₁₅ ÷ ⁸⁄₅ × ³⁄₄ − ⁷⁄₅₆ is equal to:

(1) 6⁹⁄₁₆
(2) 3⁹⁄₁₆
(3) 6⁶¹⁄₁₁₂
(4) 3⁶¹⁄₁₁₂

Why: Follow BODMAS, with ‘of’ first. 5/7 of 35/12 = 25/12; 25/12 ÷ 28/9 = 75/112. Next, 96/15 ÷ 8/5 = 4, and 4 × 3/4 = 3. Finally 75/112 + 3 − 14/112 = 3 + 61/112 = 3⁶¹⁄₁₁₂.

40.A man sold two articles for ₹ 850 each. On one article, he earns a profit of 25% and on the other article, he suffers a loss of 15%. What is his overall profit?

(1) ₹ 30
(2) ₹ 20
(3) ₹ 25
(4) ₹ 22

Why: Cost of the first = 850 ÷ 1.25 = ₹ 680; cost of the second = 850 ÷ 0.85 = ₹ 1,000. Total cost ₹ 1,680 against total sale ₹ 1,700, so the overall profit is ₹ 20.

41.A four-digit number 3x15 is a multiple of 3. Then, the sum of all the possible values of x is:

(1) 9
(2) 6
(3) 12
(4) 18

Why: The digit sum 3 + x + 1 + 5 = 9 + x must be divisible by 3, so x itself must be a multiple of 3: x = 0, 3, 6 or 9. Their sum is 18.

42.Sides AB and AC of a triangle ABC are produced to points D and E respectively. Bisectors of angles CBD and BCE intersect each other at the point O. If ∠BAC = 50°, then ∠BOC is equal to:

(1) 115°
(2) 105°
(3) 75°
(4) 65°

Why: The bisectors of the two exterior angles meet at an angle of 90° − ½∠A. So ∠BOC = 90° − 25° = 65°. (115° = 90° + ½∠A is the result for the interior bisectors.)

43.Which of the following figures has rotational symmetry, but no line symmetry?

(1) Kite
(2) Parallelogram
(3) Rectangle
(4) Rhombus

Why: A general parallelogram looks the same after a half-turn (order 2) but has no line of symmetry. A kite has a line of symmetry and no rotational symmetry; a rectangle and a rhombus have both.

44.The distance between two parallel sides of a trapezium is 8 cm. If the perimeter of the trapezium is 52 cm and its non-parallel sides are of length 10 cm each, then area of the trapezium (in cm²) is:

(1) 192
(2) 64
(3) 128
(4) 96

Why: The parallel sides add up to 52 − 10 − 10 = 32 cm. Area = ½ × (sum of parallel sides) × height = ½ × 32 × 8 = 128 cm².

45.[(x² + y² − z²)² − (x² − y² + z²)²] / [(y + z)(z − y)] is equal to:

(1) 4x²
(2) −2x²
(3) −4x²
(4) 2x²

Why: The numerator is a difference of squares: (sum)(difference) = (2x²)(2y² − 2z²) = 4x²(y² − z²). The denominator is z² − y² = −(y² − z²). The quotient is −4x².

46.The difference between the median and the mode of the observations 13, 16, 12, 14, 19, 12, 13, 14, 12, 15, 16, 15, 18, 19 is:

(1) 6·0
(2) 2·5
(3) 4·5
(4) 3·0

Why: In order: 12, 12, 12, 13, 13, 14, 14, 15, 15, 16, 16, 18, 19, 19. With 14 values the median is the mean of the 7th and 8th, (14 + 15)/2 = 14.5. The mode is 12 (three times). Difference = 2.5.

47.If 12500 = 5^x × 2^y, then which of the following can be expressed in the form 5^x−1 × 2^2y?

(1) 500
(2) 10000
(3) 2500
(4) 62500

Why: 12500 = 3125 × 4 = 5⁵ × 2², so x = 5 and y = 2. Then 5⁴ × 2⁴ = 625 × 16 = 10000.

48.Height of a right circular cylinder is 6 m. If three times the sum of the areas of its two circular bases is twice its curved surface area, then volume of the cylinder (in m³) is:

(1) 96 π
(2) 64 π
(3) 48 π
(4) 112 π

Why: 3 × 2πr² = 2 × 2πrh gives 6r = 4h = 24, so r = 4 m. Volume = πr²h = π × 16 × 6 = 96π m³.

49.ABC is a right triangle, right-angled at B. D and E are points on side AB such that AD = DE = EB. Then, (DC² − BC²) / (AC² − EC²) is equal to:

(1) ²⁄₅
(2) ⁴⁄₉
(3) ¹⁄₃
(4) ¹⁄₂

Why: Let each third of AB be k, so BE = k, BD = 2k and BA = 3k. By Pythagoras on right angles at B: DC² − BC² = BD² = 4k², and AC² − EC² = BA² − BE² = 9k² − k² = 8k². The ratio is 4/8 = 1/2.

50.Numbers from 8 to 92 were written on paper slips (one number on one slip) and were kept in a box. Then, a slip was taken out from the box, without looking into it. What is the probability that the number on the slip will be a multiple of 7?

(1) ¹²⁄₈₅
(2) ¹³⁄₈₄
(3) ¹⁄₇
(4) ¹³⁄₈₅

Why: From 8 to 92 there are 92 − 8 + 1 = 85 slips. The multiples of 7 among them run 14, 21, …, 91, which is 12 numbers. Probability = 12/85.

51.Which of the following statements with respect to linear equations is not true?

(1) In an equation, at least one of the two expressions must contain the variable.
(2) The equality that involves variables is an equation.
(3) If we multiply or divide both sides of the equality by the same whole number, it still holds.
(4) The value of equation (6y + 10) depends on the value of ‘y’.

Why: Zero is a whole number, and dividing both sides by zero is not allowed, so the rule as stated fails. The correct rule is to multiply or divide both sides by the same non-zero number.

52.Which among the following is most appropriate for assessing problem-solving ability?

(1) Assess child’s ability to recall the solution of a problem solved by him/her previously.
(2) Assess child’s ability to use knowledge in a familiar situation.
(3) Assess child’s ability to use his/her knowledge and skills in a new situation.
(4) Assess child’s ability to solve word problems only.

Why: Problem-solving means handling something not met before. Recalling an old solution or working in a familiar setting tests memory and practice, and word problems alone are too narrow a sample.

53.In which of the following situations do the results have an equal chance of occurring?

(1) The chances of a train being on time or late.
(2) The chances of a ticket which was waitlisted being confirmed.
(3) A student getting a question from the 3 chapters she prepared, out of 5.
(4) Captains of two teams tossing a coin to decide which team will bat first.

Why: A fair coin gives heads and tails the same probability, 1/2 each. A train’s punctuality and a waitlist depend on many factors, and 3 prepared chapters out of 5 gives a 3/5 chance, not an equal one.

54.A method of assessment, useful in theme-based learning, undertaken over a period of time and generally involves collection and analysis of data is a:

(1) Project
(2) Checklist
(3) Rubric
(4) Portfolio

Why: A project runs over a period, centres on a theme and has students collect and analyse data. A portfolio collects work samples over time but is not built around data gathering; checklists and rubrics are recording and scoring tools.

55.A middle school mathematics teacher writes the following patterns of numbers on the blackboard:
9 + 1 = 10 = 10 × 1
99 + 1 = 100 = 10 × 10
999 + 1 = 1000 = 10 × 100
⋮ + ⋮ = ⋮ = ⋮
Which of the following mathematical concept/concepts can be addressed through the above pattern?
(i) Introducing the concept of greatest 1-digit, greatest 2-digit, greatest 3-digit number, and so on.
(ii) It can be used to introduce the concept of 10000.
(iii) It can be used to introduce the concept of addition.
Choose the correct option:

(1) Only (i)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) Only (ii)
(4) (i) and (ii)

Why: The pattern starts from 9, 99, 999 — the greatest numbers of each digit length — and its next line gives 9999 + 1 = 10000. It already assumes addition, so it cannot be the way addition is introduced to a middle-school class.

56.Which among the following is usually not used as a strategy in Summative Assessment?

(1) Paper-pencil test
(2) Term End Exam
(3) Observation
(4) Performance test

Why: Observation is an ongoing, informal tool suited to formative assessment. Summative assessment comes at the end of a unit or term and relies on tests: paper-pencil, term-end and performance tests.

57.Which of the following is not true for rational numbers?

(1) Closed under division
(2) Closed under subtraction
(3) Closed under addition
(4) Closed under multiplication

Why: Rational numbers are closed under addition, subtraction and multiplication. They are not closed under division because dividing by zero is undefined.

58.Which of the following does not represent the correct sequence of teaching the given concepts?

(1) Proportion should precede percentage
(2) Fractions should precede rational numbers
(3) Addition should precede subtraction
(4) Decimals should precede fractions

Why: Decimals are fractions with denominators of 10, 100 and so on, so fractions have to come first. The other three orders are the usual teaching sequence.

59.The “Baudhayana Sulba Sutra”, which is a part of the rich Indian knowledge system, gives the same result as given by:

(1) Mean Value Theorem
(2) Pythagoras’ theorem
(3) External angle theorem
(4) Basic Proportionality theorem

Why: The Baudhayana Sulba Sutra states that the diagonal of a rectangle produces as much area as its two sides together — the relation later known as Pythagoras’ theorem.

60.According to National Curriculum Framework, 2005, which among the following is not a narrow aim of teaching mathematics?

(1) To develop numeracy skills
(2) To enhance the ability in solving algebraic equations
(3) To develop the right attitude for problem-solving
(4) To develop an ability to identify geometrical shapes

Why: NCF 2005 separates the narrow aim — useful skills such as numeracy, solving equations and recognising shapes — from the higher aim of developing the child’s ability to think mathematically. An attitude towards problem-solving belongs to the higher aim.

61.A metal X burns in oxygen with a white flame to form a white ash. Identify X and the type of reaction:

(1) Ca, Decomposition
(2) Zn, Endothermic
(3) Mg, Combination
(4) Al, Thermal Decomposition

Why: Magnesium ribbon burns with a dazzling white flame and leaves white magnesium oxide: 2Mg + O₂ → 2MgO. Two substances join to form one product, so it is a combination reaction (and it gives out heat, not absorbs it).

62.Which of the following is not an advantage of using manure over fertilizers?

(1) It makes the soil porous.
(2) It increases the number of friendly microbes.
(3) It fixes atmospheric nitrogen.
(4) It enhances the water holding capacity of the soil.

Why: Manure adds humus, which loosens the soil, holds water and feeds soil microbes. It does not itself fix nitrogen from the air — that is done by bacteria such as Rhizobium in the root nodules of legumes.

63.Arrange the following statements about the process of digestion in cows in the correct sequence:
(i) Chewing of cud
(ii) Partial digestion of food
(iii) Storage of food in stomach
(iv) Quick swallowing of food
Choose the correct option:

(1) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
(2) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(3) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
(4) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)

Why: A cow swallows grass quickly, stores it in the rumen, where it is partly digested, and later brings it back to the mouth as cud to chew slowly. So the order is swallowing, storage, partial digestion, chewing the cud.

64.A ball is thrown upwards. Which of the following statements is true at the highest point before it begins to fall down?

(1) Velocity is zero; net force is zero.
(2) Velocity is zero; gravitational force acts.
(3) Velocity is maximum; gravitational force acts.
(4) Velocity is maximum; net force is zero.

Why: At the top the ball stops for an instant, so its velocity is zero. Gravity never switches off, though: it is still pulling the ball down, which is exactly why the ball starts to fall. Zero velocity does not mean zero force.

65.Read the following statements:
Statement I: Isotopes of an element have the same chemical properties.
Statement II: Chemical properties do not depend on number of neutrons.
Choose the correct option:

(1) Both Statements I and II are true, but Statement II is not the correct reason for Statement I.
(2) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(3) Both Statements I and II are false.
(4) Both Statements I and II are true and Statement II is the correct reason for Statement I.

Why: Chemical behaviour is decided by the electrons, which depend on the number of protons, not neutrons. Isotopes differ only in neutrons, so they behave alike chemically. Statement II is the reason for Statement I.

66.Which of the following processes leads to production of lactic acid?

(1) Aerobic respiration in humans
(2) Anaerobic respiration in humans
(3) Anaerobic respiration in yeast
(4) Rise of dough after addition of yeast and sugar

Why: When muscles run short of oxygen during hard exercise, they respire anaerobically and form lactic acid, which causes cramps. Yeast respiring anaerobically makes ethanol and carbon dioxide instead — the gas is what makes dough rise.

67.Seema and Ashutosh set up a simple pendulum in the laboratory to calculate its time period such that the distance between the two extreme positions of the bob is ‘D’. Seema observes that the pendulum bob covers distance D/4 in 2 seconds. Ashutosh thinks that Seema made an error while conducting the experiment and repeats it. He observes that the bob covers distance 3D/2 in 10 seconds.
Which of the following is true?

(1) The time period of a pendulum is equal to 12 seconds in both the cases.
(2) Time period of pendulum calculated by Seema is greater than that calculated by Ashutosh.
(3) Time period of pendulum calculated by Ashutosh is greater than that calculated by Seema.
(4) The time period of a pendulum will be same in both the cases as it depends on mass of the bob.

Why: The amplitude is D/2. Timing from an extreme position: covering D/4 (half the amplitude) takes one-sixth of a period, so Seema’s value is T = 6 × 2 = 12 s. Covering 3D/2 means extreme → other extreme (half a period) and back to the mean position (a further quarter), i.e. three-quarters of a period, so Ashutosh gets T = 10 ÷ 0.75 ≈ 13.3 s. His value is the larger. Option 4 is wrong on physics: a pendulum’s period does not depend on the mass of the bob.

68.Mahesh left the wheat dough in the open. After a few days, it started to emit a foul smell. What could be the reason?

(1) Growth of bacteria in the wheat dough
(2) Growth of saprophytic fungi which break down the carbohydrates
(3) The oxidation of bran which produces lactic acid
(4) The reduction of the bran particles in dough which weaken gluten-forming proteins

Why: Moist dough left in the open is colonised by moulds — saprophytic fungi that feed on dead organic matter by breaking down its carbohydrates. That decomposition produces the foul smell. Oxidation or reduction of bran is not what spoils the dough.

69.Two circuits A and B are placed in close vicinity to each other. Circuit A comprises a galvanometer connected to two ends of the closed circuit. Circuit B comprises a battery and a key connected to two ends of the circuit. Initially the key is not inserted. Which of the following will be observed if the key is inserted and later removed?

(1) There are momentary galvanometer deflections in opposite directions that die out shortly.
(2) There are momentary galvanometer deflections in the same direction that die out shortly.
(3) The galvanometer shows no deflection throughout.
(4) There is momentary deflection in the galvanometer that dies out shortly and there is no effect when the key is removed.

Why: A current is induced in A only while the magnetic field from B is changing. Closing the key makes the field grow, opening it makes the field collapse, so there is a brief kick each time, and the two kicks are in opposite directions. A steady current in B induces nothing.

70.What is the reason for preferring pressure cookers over open pans for cooking the food quickly at high altitudes?

(1) Lowering of boiling point of water at high altitudes due to increase in atmospheric pressure
(2) Increase in boiling point of water at high altitudes due to decrease in atmospheric pressure
(3) Lowering of boiling point of water at high altitudes due to decrease in atmospheric pressure
(4) Increase in boiling point of water at high altitudes due to increase in atmospheric pressure

Why: Air pressure falls with height, and water boils at a lower temperature under lower pressure, so food in an open pan never gets hot enough to cook quickly. A pressure cooker raises the pressure inside and with it the boiling point.

71.Consider the following statements:
(i) Density of Ball A = 13600 kg/m³.
(ii) Density of Ball B = 7800 kg/m³.
(iii) Ball A is heavier than Ball B.
(iv) Volume of Ball A is identical to that of Ball B.
If Balls A and B are submerged into two identical containers containing water, which of the following would hold true?

(1) Both Balls A and B will displace same amount of water
(2) Ball A will displace less water than Ball B
(3) Ball A will displace more water than Ball B
(4) Both Balls A and B will not displace any water

Why: A fully submerged object displaces a volume of water equal to its own volume. The two balls have the same volume, so they displace the same amount; their different densities and weights do not matter here.

72.Read the descriptions of various layers of soil given below and identify the horizons for X, Y, Z in the correct sequence:
X: The layer is made of small lumps of rocks with cracks
Y: The layer is soft and porous and retains more water
Z: The compact layer containing a lot of minerals but less humus

(1) Top-soil, C-horizon, B-horizon
(2) C-horizon, B-horizon, Top-soil
(3) A-horizon, B-horizon, C-horizon
(4) C-horizon, A-horizon, B-horizon

Why: Small lumps of cracked rock make up the C-horizon. The soft, porous, water-holding layer rich in humus is the A-horizon (topsoil). The harder, compact middle layer with more minerals and less humus is the B-horizon.

73.Which of the following represents a set of communicable diseases?

(1) Tuberculosis, cholera, measles
(2) Cholera, hypertension, common cold
(3) Common flu, asthma, tuberculosis
(4) Chickenpox, cancer, common cold

Why: Tuberculosis and cholera are caused by bacteria and measles by a virus; all three spread from person to person. Each of the other sets contains a non-communicable condition: hypertension, asthma or cancer.

74.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Ice floats on water.
Reason (R): Ice combines with surrounding air which leads to increase in buoyancy.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Ice does float. The reason is that water expands on freezing, making ice less dense than liquid water. Ice does not combine with air, so (R) is false.

75.Which of the following statements about the process of obtaining wool is incorrect?

(1) Dyeing of different colours is done after picking out the burrs.
(2) Sorting is done after shearing.
(3) Shearing is done after scouring.
(4) Shearing is done before picking out the burrs.

Why: The order is shearing, scouring, sorting, removing burrs, dyeing, then straightening and rolling into yarn. Scouring washes fleece that has already been sheared off, so shearing comes first, not after scouring.

76.Which of the following statements about eukaryotic cells is/are not true?
(i) They can be both unicellular and multicellular.
(ii) They have a well organized nucleus.
(iii) Blue-green algae are eukaryotic cells.
(iv) They do not have nuclear membrane.
Options:

(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) Only (iv)

Why: Eukaryotic cells have a true nucleus enclosed in a nuclear membrane, and they include both single-celled and many-celled organisms. Blue-green algae (cyanobacteria) are prokaryotes, and lacking a nuclear membrane is a prokaryotic feature, so (iii) and (iv) are false.

77.A girl is standing in front of a magical mirror. She observes the image of her head bigger, the middle portion of her body of the same size and that of the legs smaller in size. Which of the following is the correct order of the combinations of the magical mirror from top to bottom?

(1) Concave, convex, convex
(2) Convex, plane, convex
(3) Convex, concave, plane
(4) Concave, plane, convex

Why: A concave mirror close up gives an enlarged image (head), a plane mirror gives a same-size image (middle), and a convex mirror always gives a smaller image (legs).

78.Select the mismatched pair:

(1) Estrogen – Ovary
(2) Thyroxine – Thyroid Gland
(3) Adrenaline – Pituitary Gland
(4) Testosterone – Testes

Why: Adrenaline is secreted by the adrenal glands above the kidneys, not by the pituitary. The other three pairs are correct.

79.Which of the following options about Reaction I (R₁) and Reaction II (R₂) are correct?
Reaction I (R₁): Reaction of slaked lime with carbon dioxide
Reaction II (R₂): Heating of calcium bicarbonate

(1) R₁ – Exothermic, R₂ – Combination
(2) R₁ – Endothermic, R₂ – Exothermic
(3) R₁ – Decomposition, R₂ – Endothermic
(4) R₁ – Exothermic, R₂ – Decomposition

Why: Ca(OH)₂ + CO₂ → CaCO₃ + H₂O releases heat, so R₁ is exothermic. Heating breaks calcium bicarbonate down: Ca(HCO₃)₂ → CaCO₃ + H₂O + CO₂, a decomposition.

80.An aqueous solution ‘X’ turns phenolphthalein solution pink. But, on addition of aqueous solution ‘Y’ to ‘X’, the colour disappears. Which of the following is true about X and Y?

(1) X is strongly basic and Y is a weak base
(2) X has pH less than 7 and Y has pH greater than 7
(3) X is strongly acidic and Y is a weak acid
(4) X has pH more than 7 and Y has pH less than 7

Why: Phenolphthalein turns pink only in a basic solution, so X has pH above 7. The pink goes when the base is neutralised, which needs an acid, so Y has pH below 7. Nothing in the observation tells us how strong either one is.

81.Read the excerpt given below:
“With the help of geometry, Euclid explained why distant objects appear smaller and nearby objects appear bigger. Interestingly, he believed that vision is caused by light rays emanating from the eye and falling on the objects seen. However, Aryabhatta pointed out in 5th century BC that an object is seen when it is illuminated by light from an external source.”
What does the above excerpt illustrate about science?
S₁: Science is tentative.
S₂: Science is subjective.

(1) S₁ is true and S₂ is false
(2) Both S₁ and S₂ are false
(3) S₁ is false and S₂ is true
(4) Both S₁ and S₂ are true

Why: An accepted explanation of vision was later replaced by a better one, which shows that scientific knowledge is tentative and open to revision. The change came from evidence and reasoning, not personal opinion, so the excerpt does not show science to be subjective.

82.Which of the following is an alternative conception?

(1) Floating or sinking of an object depends on the nature of the material it is made up of.
(2) Heavier objects always sink while lighter objects float.
(3) The buoyant force on an object immersed in water depends on the water displaced by it.
(4) Floating or sinking depends upon the shape of the object.

Why: An alternative conception is a child’s own idea that conflicts with the scientific one. “Heavy things sink” is the classic example: a heavy ship floats and a light pin sinks, because what matters is density, not weight. The other statements are scientifically sound.

83.Which of the following correctly describes a scientific hypothesis?

(1) A hypothesis is a concise statement about a phenomenon that may be framed before or after the experiment.
(2) A hypothesis is a tentative explanation based on what is already known.
(3) A hypothesis is a broad explanation firmly supported by evidence.
(4) A hypothesis is a set of observations of a phenomenon verified by experimentation.

Why: A hypothesis is a provisional explanation, drawn from existing knowledge, that an experiment then tests. It must come before the test, not after; a broad explanation firmly backed by evidence is a theory; and observations are the data, not the hypothesis.

84.Which of the following tasks is most likely to promote ‘analytical thinking’ among students?

(1) State one situation where a virtual image is formed in a convex lens.
(2) Separate a mixture of sulphur and iron provided to you.
(3) Illustrate fractional distillation by taking an example.
(4) Demonstrate a chemical test for identification of alkali metals.

Why: To separate sulphur and iron, students must examine the properties of each component — magnetism, solubility — and work out which difference to exploit. That breaking-down and comparing is analysis. The other tasks ask for recall or for carrying out a known procedure.

85.A teacher gives an iron nail, a coal piece, an aluminium wire and a pencil lead to her students and asks them to identify the materials that can be beaten into thin sheets. She further asks them to record their findings. Which of the following process skills are being assessed through this task?

(1) Classifying, Communicating, Observing
(2) Hypothesizing, Observing, Predicting
(3) Predicting, Classifying, Questioning
(4) Questioning, Classifying, Observing

Why: Students observe how each material behaves when beaten, sort them into malleable and non-malleable (classifying), and record what they found (communicating). No prediction, hypothesis or questioning is asked of them.

86.Which of the following does not characterize ‘Critical Pedagogy’ in Science?
(i) Teacher plays the role of moral authority in class and ensures discipline.
(ii) Teacher provides opportunity to learners to express themselves.
(iii) Teacher tries to avoid conflicts and differences among learners.
(iv) Teacher cultivates understanding of socio-economic diversity among learners.
Options:

(1) (iii) and (iv)
(2) (i) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (ii)
(4) (ii) and (iii)

Why: Critical pedagogy gives learners a voice and brings social differences into the open for discussion. A teacher acting as moral authority, and a teacher smoothing over differences instead of examining them, both run against it — so (i) and (iii).

87.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): A good scientific theory must be non-falsifiable.
Reason (R): Even one observation against the predictions of a theory is sufficient to prove the theory wrong.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct reason of A.
(2) A is false, but R is true.
(3) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct reason of A.
(4) A is true, but R is false.

Why: Following Karl Popper, a scientific theory must be falsifiable — it must make predictions that could turn out wrong — so (A) is false. (R) states the logic of falsification: a single genuine counter-observation is enough to refute a theory.

88.NCF-2005 recommends that a teacher should engage in action-research. Which of the following aspects is not integral to conducting action-research?

(1) It is conducted by practitioners themselves rather than professional researchers.
(2) Its purpose is to develop a new educational theory related to teaching-learning.
(3) The results of action-research may not always be generalizable.
(4) It is a planned process involving identification of a problem faced by the practitioner related to teaching-learning.

Why: Action research is carried out by the teacher to solve a specific problem in their own classroom. Its aim is practical improvement, not building a new theory, which is also why its findings may not generalise.

89.During a science class, a teacher explored students’ perceptions about how scientists may look like to which she received the following responses. Which of these presents the most apt description of scientists?

(1) They are always serious and in thought.
(2) They are like any other person.
(3) They are very brilliant but somewhat lost.
(4) They are agile and always in a hurry.

Why: Scientists are ordinary people doing a particular kind of work. The other responses are stereotypes, and a teacher collects such perceptions precisely so that she can challenge them.

90.A teacher wants to use inquiry approach to teach ‘shadow formation’ to her learners. Which of the following strategies would be most suitable for teaching-learning of this concept?

(1) Show a PowerPoint presentation on formation of shadows.
(2) Let the learners observe around them and try different materials for the formation of shadows.
(3) Ask the learners to read relevant text from the textbook.
(4) Demonstrate the formation of shadows by objects to learners.

Why: Inquiry means learners investigate for themselves — observing, trying different materials and drawing conclusions. A presentation, textbook reading and a teacher demonstration all hand them the answer instead.

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

91.स्त्रीलिंग संज्ञा नहीं है :

(1) शिखा
(2) दिशा
(3) अस्थि
(4) दीप

Why: ‘दीप’ पुल्लिंग है (दीप जलता है)। शिखा, दिशा और अस्थि तीनों स्त्रीलिंग हैं — लाल शिखाएँ, लपट दिशाएँ, अस्थियाँ जलीं।

92.किसकी जय न बोली जाए?

(1) लाल शिखा वालों की
(2) पुण्य-वेदी पर न चढ़ने वालों की
(3) अगणित लघु दीपों की
(4) अस्थियाँ जलाने वालों की

Why: कवि उनकी जय बोलने को कहता है जो बिना मोल लिए पुण्य-वेदी पर चढ़ गए। जो बलिदान के लिए आगे नहीं आए, उनकी जय का कविता में कोई प्रसंग नहीं है। शेष तीनों विकल्प उन्हीं बलिदानियों के वर्णन हैं।

93.‘कलम, आज उनकी जय बोल’ पंक्ति का आशय है :

(1) उनकी जय बोलकर इधर-उधर घूम
(2) उनकी जय के नारे लगा
(3) उनके गुणगान की कविता लिख
(4) आज केवल उनकी ही जय बोल

Why: कवि अपनी कलम से कह रहा है, और कलम का काम लिखना है। इसलिए ‘जय बोल’ का अर्थ है — उनके गौरव और गुणों का गान करने वाली रचना लिख।

94.इन पंक्तियों में किसका वर्णन है?

(1) शहीदों का
(2) अमीरों का
(3) अग्निवीरों का
(4) शेरों का

Why: अस्थियाँ जलाकर चिंगारी छिटकाने वाले, बिना मोल लिए पुण्य-वेदी पर चढ़ जाने वाले और जल-जलकर बुझ जाने वाले दीप — ये सब देश के लिए प्राण देने वाले शहीदों के चित्र हैं।

95.‘पुण्यवेदी’ में ____________ समास है।

(1) तत्पुरुष
(2) अव्ययीभाव
(3) द्विगु
(4) द्वंद्व

Why: पुण्यवेदी = पुण्य की वेदी। विग्रह में ‘की’ (संबंध कारक) आता है और उत्तरपद प्रधान है, इसलिए यह (संबंध) तत्पुरुष समास है।

96.उन्होंने मुँह खोलकर क्या नहीं माँगा?

(1) चिंगारी
(2) स्नेह
(3) कलम
(4) शिखा

Why: पंक्ति है ‘किसी दिन माँगा नहीं स्नेह मुख खोल’। दीप के प्रसंग में ‘स्नेह’ के दो अर्थ हैं — तेल और प्रेम; बलिदानी जलते रहे पर बदले में कुछ नहीं माँगा।

97.भाषा की कक्षा में प्रायः समूह और जोड़ों में कार्य करवाया जाता है। इससे समावेशी कक्षा से जुड़े महत्त्वपूर्ण मूल्यों का विकास करने में भी मदद मिलती है। ये कौन-सा मूल्य है?

(1) सहानुभूति
(2) प्रतियोगिता
(3) सहयोग
(4) ईर्ष्या

Why: समूह और जोड़ी-कार्य में बच्चे एक साझे काम के लिए मिलकर काम करते हैं, जिससे सहयोग का मूल्य विकसित होता है। प्रतियोगिता और ईर्ष्या उलटी दिशा में ले जाती हैं, और सहानुभूति कुछ बच्चों को बराबर का साथी नहीं, दया का पात्र बना देती है।

98.एक दिन आप कक्षा में बहुत सी वस्तुएँ लेकर आयीं और बच्चों से कहा कि उनके नाम बताओ। आपने बच्चों के उत्तरों को श्यामपट्ट पर लिखा और उन्हें बताया कि ये सभी नाम भिन्न-भिन्न वस्तुओं के लिए प्रयोग में लाए जाते हैं, इन्हें ‘संज्ञा’ कहा जाता है। इसके बाद आपने संज्ञा की परिभाषा बताई। आपके द्वारा प्रयोग में लाई जा रही इस विधि को क्या कहा जाता है?

(1) निगमनात्मक विधि
(2) आनुषंगिक (इन्सिडेंटल) विधि
(3) आगमनात्मक विधि
(4) प्रत्यक्ष विधि

Why: पहले उदाहरण (बच्चों के बताए नाम) और फिर उनसे नियम (संज्ञा की परिभाषा) — उदाहरण से नियम की ओर जाना आगमनात्मक विधि है। निगमन विधि परिभाषा से शुरू होती।

99.जब एकभाषी वक्ता बोले जा रहे या अभिव्यक्त किए जा रहे विचार बिन्दु को औपचारिक से अनौपचारिक स्थिति में सम्प्रेषित करने लगते हैं, तो यह स्थिति क्या कहलाती है?

(1) कोड-मिश्रण
(2) बोली
(3) कोड-अन्तरण
(4) अपभाषा (स्लैंग)

Why: एक ही बातचीत में भाषा के एक रूप या शैली से दूसरे पर चले जाना कोड-अन्तरण है; एकभाषी वक्ता भी औपचारिक और अनौपचारिक कोड के बीच ऐसा करता है। कोड-मिश्रण में एक भाषा के शब्द दूसरी में मिलाए जाते हैं।

100.कुछ शब्दों के एक से अधिक अर्थ हो सकते हैं। किसी भाषा विशेष में शब्दों के अर्थ निम्नलिखित में से किससे संबंधित होते हैं?

(1) वाक्य-विन्यास
(2) ध्वनि विज्ञान
(3) आकृति विज्ञान
(4) अर्थ तत्त्व

Why: अर्थ का अध्ययन अर्थ तत्त्व (अर्थविज्ञान) करता है। वाक्य-विन्यास वाक्य की रचना, ध्वनि विज्ञान ध्वनियों और आकृति विज्ञान शब्द-रचना से संबंधित है।

101.उपचारात्मक शिक्षण का क्या उद्देश्य है?

(1) भाषा की नवीन विषय-वस्तु से परिचित करवाना
(2) अच्छी तरह से न सीखी गई भाषा विषय-वस्तु को पुनः पढ़ाना
(3) हाल ही में पढ़ाई गई विषय-वस्तु का परीक्षण करना
(4) पहले से सीखी गई भाषा की विषय-वस्तु को पुनः पढ़ाना

Why: उपचारात्मक शिक्षण निदान के बाद होता है और वही दोबारा पढ़ाता है जो बच्चे ठीक से नहीं सीख पाए, प्रायः नए ढंग से। पहले से सीखी चीज़ दोहराना पुनरावृत्ति है और परीक्षण आकलन है।

102.स्किनर की यह राय थी कि बच्चे उन ध्वनियों को दोहराते हैं जिनमें उन्हें आनन्ददायी प्रतिक्रिया मिले। इस दृष्टिकोण का आधार क्या है?

(1) सहज ज्ञानवाद सिद्धान्त
(2) अवलोकनात्मक अधिगम
(3) भाषा अर्जन उपकरण
(4) सक्रिय अनुकूलन

Why: पुनर्बलन मिलने वाला व्यवहार दोहराया जाता है — यह स्किनर का सक्रिय (क्रियाप्रसूत) अनुकूलन है। सहज ज्ञानवाद और भाषा अर्जन उपकरण चॉम्स्की के हैं, अवलोकनात्मक अधिगम बंडूरा का।

103.किसी विशेष कौशल के विकास संबंधी अपने अवलोकन के आधार पर आपने निर्णय लिया कि आप अपनी कक्षा में प्रत्यक्ष (डायरेक्ट) विधि का प्रयोग करेंगे। इस विधि के लिए आप किस कौशल का प्रयोग करेंगे?

(1) श्रवण कौशल
(2) बोलने का कौशल (वाचन कौशल)
(3) लेखन कौशल
(4) पठन कौशल

Why: प्रत्यक्ष विधि में लक्ष्य-भाषा में ही, बिना अनुवाद, मौखिक बातचीत और प्रश्नोत्तर से सिखाया जाता है। इसका मुख्य बल बोलने के कौशल पर है।

104.निम्नलिखित में से किस सिद्धांतकार ने यह परिकल्पित किया कि बच्चों में भाषा सीखने की अन्तर्निहित तत्परता होती है?

(1) स्किनर
(2) जिम क्यूमिन्स
(3) फ्रॉयड
(4) चॉम्स्की

Why: चॉम्स्की के अनुसार बच्चे जन्म से ही ‘भाषा अर्जन उपकरण’ लेकर आते हैं। स्किनर भाषा को पुनर्बलन से समझाते हैं और कमिन्स द्विभाषिकता पर अपने काम के लिए जाने जाते हैं।

105.शब्दों को वाक्यांशों और वाक्यों की रचना करने के लिए सार्थक रूप से किस तरह से व्यवस्थित किया जा सकता है, इससे संबंधित नियमों का अध्ययन करने के लिए हमें क्या पढ़ना चाहिए?

(1) वाक्य-विन्यास
(2) आकृति विज्ञान
(3) स्वरविज्ञान
(4) अर्थ तत्त्व

Why: शब्दों से वाक्यांश और वाक्य बनाने के नियम वाक्य-विन्यास में आते हैं। आकृति विज्ञान शब्द की बनावट, स्वरविज्ञान ध्वनियों और अर्थ तत्त्व अर्थ का अध्ययन करता है।

106.यदि बच्चे अपने आस-पास बोली जाने वाली दो भाषाएँ सुनते हैं, तो दो भाषाओं के इस संपर्क से :

(1) बच्चों को किसी भी प्रकार का फ़र्क नहीं पड़ेगा।
(2) बच्चों को हानि पहुँचेगी।
(3) बच्चों को लाभ होगा।
(4) बच्चे भ्रमित होंगे।

Why: शोध बताता है कि दो भाषाओं के बीच बड़े होने से बच्चों को लाभ होता है — सोच में अधिक लचीलापन और भाषा के प्रति अधिक सजगता। इससे भ्रम होने की आशंका सही नहीं निकली।

107.एक शिक्षार्थी द्वारा सुने जा रहे और उसके अर्थ के प्रति प्रतिक्रिया देने से जुड़े निवेश (इनपुट) को _____________ के रूप में परिभाषित किया जाता है।

(1) भाषा
(2) सम्प्रेषण
(3) संवाद
(4) नियम

Why: भाषा-अर्जन में इनपुट वह भाषा है जो शिक्षार्थी के सामने आती है और जिसे वह अर्थ के लिए ग्रहण करता है। यही वह कच्ची सामग्री है जिससे भाषा सीखी जाती है।

108.आपकी मित्र को व्यावहारिक व्याकरण पढ़ाने के लिए कहा गया। वह आपके पास मदद के लिए आती है। आप उसे बताएँ कि व्यावहारिक व्याकरण का तात्पर्य है कि व्याकरण शिक्षण ___________।

(1) संदर्भ में किया जाए
(2) में नियम उदाहरणों के साथ बताए जाएँ
(3) साहित्यिक विषय-वस्तु की व्याख्या के माध्यम से हो
(4) में नियम पृथक से बताए जाएँ

Why: व्यावहारिक व्याकरण यह सिखाता है कि व्याकरण भाषा-प्रयोग में कैसे काम करता है, इसलिए उसे सार्थक संदर्भ में पढ़ाया जाता है। नियम बताना — उदाहरण सहित या अलग से — औपचारिक पद्धति है।

109.‘प्रत्यास्मरण’ प्रकार का परीक्षण किसका आकलन करता है?

(1) चिन्तन योग्यता का
(2) स्मृति का
(3) समझ का
(4) कल्पनाशीलता का

Why: प्रत्यास्मरण प्रश्नों (रिक्त स्थान, लघु उत्तर) में बिना संकेत के जानकारी याद करके लिखनी होती है, इसलिए वे मुख्यतः स्मृति का आकलन करते हैं।

110.बच्चे किस प्रकार की गतिविधियों से प्रोत्साहित होते हैं?

(1) जो उनके लिए सार्थक होती हैं।
(2) जिनकी योजना वयस्क द्वारा बनाई जाती है।
(3) जो अध्यापकों के लिए सार्थक होती हैं।
(4) जिनकी योजना बच्चों द्वारा बनाई जाती है।

Why: बच्चे उन गतिविधियों में रुचि लेते हैं जो उन्हें अर्थपूर्ण लगें और उनके जीवन व रुचियों से जुड़ें। योजना किसने बनाई, यह उतना महत्त्वपूर्ण नहीं जितना यह कि गतिविधि बच्चे के लिए सार्थक हो।

111.आप अपनी कक्षा में शिक्षार्थियों की कमियों और कठिनाइयों की पहचान करना चाहते हैं। आप इस उद्देश्य के लिए निम्नलिखित में से किस प्रकार के मूल्यांकन का प्रयोग करना चाहेंगे?

(1) मानदंड-संदर्भित मूल्यांकन
(2) योगात्मक मूल्यांकन
(3) निदानात्मक मूल्यांकन
(4) अनुवर्ती (फॉलो-अप) मूल्यांकन

Why: निदानात्मक मूल्यांकन इसीलिए किया जाता है कि पता चले शिक्षार्थी कहाँ पिछड़ रहे हैं और कठिनाई का कारण क्या है, ताकि उपचारात्मक शिक्षण उसी पर केंद्रित हो सके।

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

112.निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्द भिन्न है?

(1) संयम
(2) शरीर
(3) संतोष
(4) आनंद

Why: संयम, संतोष और आनंद भाववाचक संज्ञाएँ हैं — मन की अवस्थाएँ जिन्हें छुआ नहीं जा सकता। ‘शरीर’ एक मूर्त, दिखाई देने वाली वस्तु (जातिवाचक संज्ञा) है, इसलिए यह भिन्न है।

113.‘बुरा-भला’ में ____________ समास है।

(1) तत्पुरुष
(2) अव्ययीभाव
(3) द्वंद्व
(4) द्विगु

Why: बुरा-भला = बुरा और भला। दोनों पद प्रधान हैं और विग्रह में ‘और’ आता है, इसलिए यह द्वंद्व समास है।

114.रिक्त स्थान के लिए सही शब्द चुनिए :
____________ को जीवन का आधार बना लेना अनिश्चय में जीना है।

(1) संयम
(2) संतोष
(3) तटस्थता
(4) धन

Why: गद्यांश में यही वाक्य है: धन को जीवन का आधार बना लेना अनिश्चय में जीना है — क्योंकि आय घटते ही जिन सुविधाओं पर जीवन टिका था, उनकी कटौती संकट बन जाती है।

115.धन का बुरा-भला होना किस पर निर्भर करता है?

(1) सुविधा
(2) आनंद
(3) आय
(4) उपयोग

Why: लेखक कहता है कि धन तो तटस्थ है; उसका बुरा-भला होना इस पर निर्भर करता है कि हम उसका उपयोग कैसे करते हैं।

116.जीवन में सुख कब सूखने लगता है?

(1) धन से जुटाई वस्तुएँ कम होने पर
(2) धन से जुटाई वस्तुओं के आनंद सोखने पर
(3) धन से जुटाई वस्तुएँ ज्यादा होने पर
(4) धन कम होने पर

Why: गद्यांश के अनुसार एक समय आता है जब धन से जुटाई बाहरी वस्तुएँ आनंद सोखने लगती हैं, और फिर जीवन-सुख भी सूखने लगता है।

117.किस प्रकार के धन की कामना वर्जित है?

(1) संतोष देने वाले धन की।
(2) मेहनत करके कमाए जाने वाले धन की।
(3) बैंक की शोभा बढ़ाने वाले धन की।
(4) दूसरों की भलाई में काम आने वाले धन की।

Why: लेखक उस धन की कामना को वर्जित बताता है जो आवश्यकताएँ पूरी हो जाने के बाद भी विलासिता या बैंक की शोभा बढ़ाने के लिए किसी भी तरह कमाया जाता है।

118.हमें सुख किससे मिलेगा?

(1) आकांक्षा
(2) उत्साह
(3) संतोष
(4) आशा

Why: गद्यांश के अनुसार जीवन-यात्रा का असली आनंद तभी है जब हम संतोष और संयम के साथ पूरी हो चुकी इच्छाओं का भरपूर आनंद लें। आकांक्षा और आशा तो उलटे आदमी को जीवन भर दौड़ाती रहती हैं।

119.कौन-सा बंधन आजीवन दौड़ाता है?

(1) आकांक्षा का
(2) धन का
(3) आशा का
(4) उत्साह का

Why: [KEY] CBSE की अंतिम उत्तर-कुंजी विकल्प 3 (आशा का) को सही मानती है। गद्यांश में यह ‘आशा-आकांक्षा का बंधन’ कहा गया है, जिससे बँधा मनुष्य सारी ज़िंदगी दौड़ता रहता है — यानी पाठ के अनुसार ‘आकांक्षा का’ (विकल्प 1) भी उतना ही उचित है। अंक विकल्प 3 पर ही दिए गए।

120.किसके लिए धन वर्जित है?

(1) विलासिता पूर्ति
(2) उपयुक्त वाहन
(3) स्वास्थ्यकर भोजन
(4) आरामदायक घर

Why: आरामदायक घर, स्वास्थ्यकर भोजन और परिवार के अनुसार वाहन — इन आवश्यकताओं के लिए धन कमाना कोई धर्म मना नहीं करता। वर्जित वह धन है जो आवश्यकताएँ पूरी होने के बाद विलासिता की पूर्ति के लिए कमाया जाए।

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

121.Study the following statements carefully marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct option from the alternatives given below.
Assertion (A): We need to design clear policies to create an enabling, inclusive, and non-discriminatory digital economy.
Reason (R): The pandemic has promoted the usage of digital ecosystem and digital economy.

(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(2) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Why: The Declaration first notes that COVID-19 accelerated the shift to a digital economy, and on that basis recognises the need for policies that make it enabling, inclusive and non-discriminatory. The growth described in (R) is what makes the policies in (A) necessary.

122.Digital technologies can help in solving the major challenges of:
A. Poverty
B. Climate change
C. Price surge
D. Paperless green offices
Choose the most appropriate combination of alternatives, as highlighted in the passage.

(1) A, B, D
(2) B, C, D
(3) A, B, C
(4) A, C, D

Why: Para 2 names the fight against poverty and against climate change, with paperless green offices given as the example. Price surge is never mentioned, so every combination containing C falls away and only A, B, D remains.

123.Study the following statements:
A. Success of digital technology depends on high quality digital connectivity.
B. Online environment needs to be safe and secure.

(1) B is right and A is wrong.
(2) A is right and B is wrong.
(3) Both A and B are right.
(4) Both A and B are wrong.

Why: Para 3 says affordable, high-quality connectivity is essential for digital transformation, and that a resilient, safe and secure online environment is needed for trust. Both statements follow the passage.

124.Which of the following words mean the same as ‘fosters’ (para 3)?

(1) squelches
(2) encourages
(3) serves
(4) stifles

Why: An economy that ‘fosters the application of new technologies’ encourages and promotes it. Squelch and stifle mean the opposite.

125.Read the following statements carefully and choose the most appropriate alternative:
A. G20 enhances engagement among Global Innovation builders as start-ups
B. G20 is a launching pad for digital economy.

(1) B is correct and A is wrong.
(2) Both A and B are correct.
(3) Both A and B are wrong.
(4) A is correct and B is wrong.

Why: Para 4 says the G20 set up its Digital Innovation Network to increase engagement among innovation builders such as start-ups, and meant it as a launching pad for the digital economy. The key accepts both statements as summaries of this.

126.Which part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence?
“From economy to sustainability, all were looped in the strings of digital innovation.”

(1) Adjective
(2) Preposition
(3) Conjunction
(4) Verb

Why: ‘Of’ links the noun ‘digital innovation’ to ‘strings’, showing the relation between them — a preposition.

127.Which of the following is the appropriate word from para 2 which means the same as ‘metamorphosis’?

(1) inclusion
(2) transformation
(3) application
(4) importance

Why: Metamorphosis is a complete change of form or nature, which is what transformation means (‘socio-economic transformation’ in para 2).

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

128.The passage talks about:

(1) Asia-Pacific business models.
(2) innovative Japanese enterprises.
(3) elements required for flourishing business.
(4) best business model.

Why: The passage opens by saying Japan’s economy is driven by small and medium enterprises offering new ways of doing things, and then describes such firms. Asia-Pacific models are mentioned only for contrast.

129.What are the bases of Japanese businesses?

(1) Good service and quality products
(2) Mass production and low cost
(3) Demand and supply
(4) Cost control but quality compromise

Why: Working hard to deliver quality products and services is described as hard-wired into every good Japanese business. Mass production and low cost are what the neighbours lead in.

130.Japanese firms believe in the principle of:

(1) doing most of all little things right.
(2) doing new things.
(3) doing all little things right.
(4) doing only few important things right.

Why: The passage says SMEs play a massive role ‘by doing all the little things right’.

131.Japanese products are not in competition with other countries in terms of:

(1) mass production, low-cost models.
(2) customer-centric approach.
(3) cost and volume.
(4) high profit margins.

Why: Komuro says Japanese products cannot remain competitive on cost and volume, and excel instead where high quality is needed.

132.Choose the word which most nearly means the same as the underlined one in the following expression:
‘... nation’s booming small and medium ...’

(1) loud
(2) supplanting
(3) noisy
(4) growing

Why: Said of businesses, ‘booming’ means growing fast and prospering. The ‘loud’ and ‘noisy’ senses belong to a booming sound, not to an economy.

133.Which part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence?
‘... many such firms are thriving, whether supplying business contracts or selling direct to customers.’

(1) Adverb
(2) Verb
(3) Gerund
(4) Noun

Why: ‘Are thriving’ is the present continuous form of the verb ‘thrive’; thriving is the main verb of the clause. A gerund would be an -ing form used as a noun, which it is not here.

134.Read the following statements and choose the correct option:
A. Firms are utilizing an agile corporate structure.
B. A large number of manufacturers have shifted to niche fields.

(1) A is true, but B is false.
(2) A is correct but not related to B.
(3) Both A and B are false.
(4) Both A and B are true but not connected to each other.

Why: Both appear in the passage: SMEs thrive by using an agile corporate structure, and Komuro says many manufacturers have moved to niche fields. The passage gives them as separate points, not as cause and effect.

135.According to the passage, what is not a crucial factor in a firm’s success? Select the most appropriate combination.
A. Adaptability
B. Mass production
C. Change in focus of production
D. Client satisfaction
E. New offerings

(1) A, B, E
(2) C, D, E
(3) A, C, D
(4) A, D, E

Why: [KEY] The CBSE final key credits option 1, the only combination that contains mass production — the one factor the passage clearly rules out (‘we do not work with mass production’). The option set is imperfect, though: Iwata names adaptability as a crucial factor, so A should not be in the answer, and the passage says nothing about new offerings either way. Candidates were marked on option 1.

136.As a teacher, you prefer to use audio-visual aids and physical activities in your teaching. You do this because you find that they:

(1) provide relief to you in the classroom.
(2) divert the attention of the learners.
(3) facilitate effective assessment.
(4) utilize maximum number of senses to enhance learning.

Why: Audio-visual aids and physical activity engage sight, hearing and movement together, and learning that involves more senses is richer and longer-lasting.

137.You go through the students’ notebooks and give remarks. This is an example of:

(1) Daily remarks
(2) Evaluation
(3) Feedback
(4) Notebook checking

Why: Remarks written on a student’s work tell the learner how they are doing and what to improve — that is feedback, the purpose behind the notebook checking.

138.Good speakers have the ability of:

(1) Paraphrasing
(2) Quick analysis
(3) Understanding
(4) Translating

Why: A good speaker can put an idea in other words when the listener has not understood, adjusting to the audience. Paraphrasing is that speaking skill; understanding is a listening and reading ability.

139.Rakesh, a student in your class, often makes errors in tense forms. To help him overcome this problem, you can:

(1) scold Rakesh to make him learn the rules.
(2) ask Rakesh to write the rules ten times in his notebook.
(3) explain to him the rules of grammar.
(4) take up many examples for the entire class and pay special attention to Rakesh.

Why: Plenty of examples in use help the whole class, and individual attention supports Rakesh without singling him out. Scolding, writing rules repeatedly or explaining rules in isolation do not build the ability to use tenses.

140.You are in the process of selecting the most suitable teaching aid. Which one of the following is not relevant in respect of selection of correct teaching aids?

(1) It need not have specific educational values.
(2) It should be child-centered.
(3) It should be in sync with the topic being taught in the class.
(4) It should be simple and easy to use.

Why: A teaching aid exists to serve a learning purpose, so it must have educational value. Being child-centred, relevant to the topic and easy to use are all proper criteria.

141.Which of the following are not related to emergent literacy?

(1) Understanding that print carries meaning
(2) Early phonological awareness
(3) Taking note
(4) Basic alphabet knowledge

Why: Emergent literacy is what young children know about reading and writing before formal instruction: that print means something, awareness of sounds, and early letter knowledge. Note-taking is an advanced study skill.

142.Children who are differently abled join a new school. Teachers give different reactions. Which one reflects the concept of inclusive education?

(1) “Oh! How can I teach children who cannot even hear?”
(2) “Wow! It will provide a good opportunity for the children to learn to help each other and be supportive.”
(3) “Oh! How will such children mix with other children of the class?”
(4) “Oh! There should be a separate section for such children.”

Why: Inclusion welcomes all children into the same class and sees their presence as enriching for everyone. The other reactions express doubt, anxiety or a wish to segregate.

143.You love to have classroom discourse because it:

(1) does not give importance to learner’s contributions.
(2) brings clarity and distinctiveness in the speech.
(3) hardly prompts the learners to think.
(4) gives you power as a teacher.

Why: Regular talk in the classroom gives learners practice in expressing ideas, so their speech becomes clearer and more articulate. The other options describe the opposite of what discourse does.

144.Which among the following highlights the significant difference in Vygotsky’s and Piaget’s theory?

(1) The relationship between language and thought
(2) The constructive/objective role of children in the process of meaning-making
(3) Understanding children as active/passive learners
(4) Understanding that learning is a simple/complex process

Why: For Piaget thought develops first and language reflects it; for Vygotsky language, beginning as social speech, shapes thought. Both see children as active constructors of meaning, so that is not where they differ.

145.The most important element in Communicative Language Teaching is:

(1) meaning.
(2) the structure of language.
(3) the skill of writing.
(4) memorizing the rules of grammar.

Why: Communicative Language Teaching puts meaning and real communication first; accuracy of structure matters, but it serves getting meaning across.

146.Which speaker would be most likely to engage in code-mixing?

(1) Satyaveer, a monolingual adult
(2) Garv, a bilingual child
(3) Meera, a bilingual adult
(4) Arpita, a monolingual child

Why: Code-mixing needs two languages, which rules out the monolingual speakers. A bilingual child, still building both vocabularies, draws on whichever language supplies the word, so mixing is especially common at that stage.

147.You observe that Mandakini, a student of class IV, often makes mistakes while using tenses. You can help Mandakini overcome this problem by:

(1) giving her real life situations or examples where she can use tenses.
(2) asking her to memorize rules of tenses thoroughly.
(3) explaining or writing rules of grammar.
(4) asking Mandakini to write tenses 10 times in her notebook.

Why: Tenses are learnt by using them in meaningful situations. Memorising rules or copying them out does not transfer to actual use.

148.A language teacher wants to conduct a problem-solving method effectively in her class. She should:

(1) ask the students to consult their parents.
(2) look at the students’ activities from a distance.
(3) encourage divergent thinking.
(4) participate actively in the process.

Why: Problem-solving works when learners are free to come up with different ideas and approaches. Divergent thinking is what the method depends on; the teacher facilitates rather than taking over or standing aside.

149.A listener listens to the main idea, predicting, drawing inferences and summarizing. What are these strategies known as?

(1) Bottom-up processes
(2) Top-down processes
(3) Cognitive processes
(4) Analytical processes

Why: Using background knowledge to grasp the gist, predict, infer and summarise is top-down processing. Bottom-up processing builds meaning from the smallest units — sounds, words, grammar.

150.Phonemic awareness refers to:

(1) the ability to identify and manipulate phonemes in spoken words.
(2) the ability to establish relation between phonemes and graphemes.
(3) reading words accurately and fluently.
(4) writing with correct spellings.

Why: [KEY] The CBSE final key credits option 2. In the standard definition, phonemic awareness is the purely oral ability to hear and manipulate individual sounds in spoken words — option 1 — while linking phonemes to graphemes (letters) is phonics. Candidates were marked on option 2.

CTET February 2026 — Paper II (Maths and Science)

Choose your language papers

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026
Paper II (Maths and Science)

Part I — Child Development and Pedagogy

Part II — Mathematics and Science

Part IV — Language I — Hindi

Part V — Language II — English

Answer Key

CTET February 2026 — Paper II (Maths and Science)

Choose your language papers

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026Paper II (Maths and Science)

Part I — Child Development and Pedagogy

Part II — Mathematics and Science

Part IV — Language I — Hindi

Part V — Language II — English

Answer Key

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026
Paper II (Maths and Science)