MAK LABS — CTET 1 March 2026 Paper II (Maths and Science) Question Paper with Answer Key

1.An effective strategy for solving ill-defined problems is:

(1) Focusing on functional fixedness
(2) Means-Ends analysis
(3) Algorithms
(4) Learning by rote

Why: An ill-defined problem has no clear path to the goal, so an algorithm cannot be applied. Means-ends analysis works backwards from the goal, breaking the gap into sub-goals and closing them one by one. Functional fixedness is a barrier to problem-solving, and rote learning has nothing to offer a new problem.

2.Which of the following set of qualities characterizes critical thinking?
(i) Ability to question
(ii) Ability to self-reflect
(iii) Ability to test previously held assumptions
(iv) Ability to think convergently
Choose the correct option:

(1) (i) and (iv)
(2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i) and (ii)

Why: Questioning, reflecting on one’s own reasoning and testing one’s own assumptions are the core of critical thinking. Convergent thinking — narrowing down to one expected answer — is not what defines it, so (iv) is the odd one out.

3.Which of the following statement about the role of heredity and environment in the development of a child is correct?

(1) While heredity contributes in unfolding of the child’s characteristic traits, the entirety of a child’s development is solely based on environmental factors.
(2) While heredity provides the genetic blueprint for an individual’s development, the expression of those genes can be influenced by environmental factors.
(3) Both heredity and environment contribute 50% each in the development of a child.
(4) Dispositions are linked with environmental factors but actual development occurs on the basis of heredity.

Why: Heredity and environment interact: genes set the possibilities, and the environment shapes how they are expressed. Option 1 and option 4 each hand development to one side alone, and no fixed 50–50 split exists.

4.Arpita and Anu give their books to each other since both consider it ‘an equal exchange of favours’. At which level of Kohlberg’s moral development theory are Arpita and Anu?

(1) Heteronomous level
(2) Post-conventional level
(3) Conventional level
(4) Pre-conventional level

Why: [KEY] The CBSE final key credits option 1. In Kohlberg’s scheme, Stage 1 is called heteronomous morality, and the “you help me, I help you” reasoning shown here is Stage 2, instrumental exchange. Both stages sit at the pre-conventional level, so textbooks would point to option 4. The key, however, has taken the heteronomous (externally governed) label as the answer, and candidates were marked on option 1.

5.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): When unable to ‘make meaning’, efficient readers slow down and reread the text clarifying confusion before continuing further.
Reason (R): Metacognition hinders the process of meaning-making.

(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Slowing down and rereading when meaning breaks down is exactly what skilled readers do, so (A) is true. That behaviour is metacognition at work — monitoring one’s own understanding — which helps meaning-making rather than hindering it, so (R) is false.

6.Which of the following sets describe ways in which a school should be inclusive?
(i) Modification of curriculum as required
(ii) Expecting students to totally adapt to the school’s culture
(iii) Fostering an ethos of care and respect
(iv) Opportunities for collaborative learning
Choose the correct option:

(1) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Why: An inclusive school changes itself to fit its learners: it adapts the curriculum, builds a caring climate and lets children learn together. Expecting children to adapt entirely to the school puts the burden the wrong way round, so (ii) is excluded.

7.Which of the following statement about socialization is correct?

(1) Socialization cultivates shared sources of meaning and value.
(2) Socialization is culture-independent and context-neutral.
(3) Socialization happens only during childhood.
(4) Norms and beliefs cannot be acquired through socialization process.

Why: Through socialization a child takes on the meanings, values and norms shared by the group. It is always shaped by culture and context, it continues through life, and acquiring norms and beliefs is precisely what it does.

8.Role of a teacher in ‘reciprocal teaching’ is characterized by:

(1) a shift from being a support and guide towards gradual release of responsibility to the students.
(2) being a mere recipient of the suggestions given by students.
(3) the position of dominance and sole authority to disseminate the information to students.
(4) his/her position of being a passive observer throughout the process.

Why: In reciprocal teaching the teacher first models the strategies of predicting, questioning, clarifying and summarising, then hands the lead to students step by step. That gradual release is the defining feature; the teacher is neither dominant nor passive.

9.An assessment approach aiming to support students’ learning is characterized by:

(1) Consideration of method of solving the problem along with the outcome.
(2) Focus on inaccuracies only while ignoring the process and endeavours.
(3) Exams done at the end of the year through objective type questions.
(4) Evaluation and marking based on standardized quiz-based tests.

Why: Assessment for learning looks at how a student reached the answer, not only at the answer, because the method shows where help is needed. Counting only errors, year-end objective tests and standardised quizzes all judge the product and say little about the process.

10.Which of the following is an effective strategy of emotional regulation?

(1) Channelling emotions to use them as a source of inspiration and creative endeavours
(2) Waiting until emotions escalate to the point of losing control
(3) Reacting impulsively to emotional triggers
(4) Suppressing emotions in order to conform to social norms

Why: Regulating an emotion means directing it into something constructive. Letting it escalate or reacting on impulse is the absence of regulation, and suppression only hides the feeling without managing it.

11.Learning about a concept/category is easier if:

(1) previous knowledge about the concept is not activated.
(2) concept is represented in abstract and complex ways.
(3) familiar examples are provided while introducing the concept.
(4) lots of advanced information is given to create cognitive load.

Why: Familiar examples link the new concept to what the learner already knows, which makes it easier to grasp. Not activating prior knowledge, presenting the concept abstractly and piling on cognitive load all make learning harder.

12.According to Jean Piaget, what is the role of symbolic thought in cognitive development?

(1) Symbolic thought develops after cognitive development is complete.
(2) Symbolic thought impacts cognitive development only in children with language delays.
(3) Symbolic thought causes mental confusion and hinders cognitive development.
(4) Symbolic thought facilitates cognitive development by allowing for mental processes like problem-solving.

Why: For Piaget, the ability to let one thing stand for another — words, images, pretend play — emerges in the pre-operational stage and lets the child think about objects that are not present. That opens the way to mental problem-solving, so it drives development rather than following or hindering it.

13.Which of the following typical characteristics is a child struggling with dysgraphia likely to show?

(1) Aggression, frustration and stress
(2) Impulsiveness; difficulty in concentrating and forgetfulness
(3) Slow in written work; makes poorly formed letters, has difficulty copying from blackboard
(4) Withdrawal, guilt and anxiety

Why: Dysgraphia is a difficulty with writing, so the signs are in written work: slowness, badly formed letters and trouble copying. Option 2 describes attention difficulties, and options 1 and 4 are emotional reactions that may accompany many problems.

14.A teacher is providing learners with the chances to be exposed to and analyze concepts in order to help them understand the content through her support. This is an example of:

(1) Expository teaching
(2) Guided discovery
(3) Pre-dispositional learning
(4) Observational modelling

Why: Learners explore and analyse the concepts themselves while the teacher supports and steers them — that is guided discovery. Expository teaching would present the content ready-made, and observational modelling means learning by watching a model.

15.Which of the following statements is correct about gender development in contemporary times?

(1) Gender is purely and solely determined by an individual’s anatomy at birth.
(2) Gender exists on a binary concept – one is either male or female.
(3) Gender identity is influenced by cultural conceptions.
(4) Gender identity is not influenced by socialization.

Why: Gender identity is shaped by the ideas a culture holds about gender and by the socialization a child receives. Treating it as fixed by anatomy, strictly binary, or untouched by socialization runs against the current understanding.

16.Which of the following hinders problem-solving?

(1) Breaking down large complex problems into manageable smaller problems
(2) Fixating on a single trait of a composite problem
(3) Applying algorithms and heuristics
(4) Using a solution which was effective in solving a similar problem earlier

Why: Getting stuck on one feature of a many-sided problem blocks the solver from seeing the rest of it. Breaking a problem into parts, using algorithms and heuristics, and transferring a solution that worked before are all aids.

17.Activities which ______________ are detrimental to students’ motivation to learn.

(1) are moderately difficult for students
(2) connect with real life of students
(3) cater to students’ needs and interests
(4) aim at intangible goals decided solely by the teacher

Why: Goals that students cannot see and had no part in setting give them no reason to engage. Moderate challenge, real-life connection and attention to their needs and interests all build motivation.

18.Following Lev Vygotsky’s ideas on learning, a teacher should:

(1) encourage students to continually compete with each other.
(2) prevent integration of cultural knowledge in discussions.
(3) capitalize on dialogue and group learning during activities.
(4) discourage verbalization and thinking aloud among students.

Why: Vygotsky saw learning as social: children learn through talk and joint activity with others. Dialogue and group work follow directly from that. Constant competition, keeping culture out and discouraging talk all cut against his view.

19.Jean Piaget gave importance to ____________ in the course of development and learning.

(1) exam-centric pedagogy
(2) conditioning of behaviour
(3) children’s maturation and readiness to learn
(4) cultural tools

Why: Piaget held that children move through stages as they mature, and can only learn what their current stage makes them ready for. Conditioning belongs to behaviourism and cultural tools to Vygotsky.

20.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Teachers should ensure enough ‘wait time’, which is the length of time a teacher pauses, after asking a question.
Reason (R): Diversity is an asset and not an obstacle.

(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Enough wait time gives more students the chance to think and respond, so (A) is true. Diversity being a resource is also true, but it is a separate principle; the case for wait time rests on thinking time, not on diversity.

21.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Children learn most effectively when they are criticized frequently for their mistakes.
Reason (R): Frequent criticism makes children self-reliant which helps in improving their academic performance.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Frequent criticism breeds fear and loss of confidence, which gets in the way of learning, so (A) is false. It does not build self-reliance either, so (R) is false too. Mistakes are better treated as a window into the child’s thinking.

22.Inclusion of students belonging to disadvantaged backgrounds requires:

(1) identity-based segregation of students.
(2) consideration of socio-cultural diversity.
(3) execution of standardized curriculum.
(4) tradition of exam-centered pedagogy.

Why: Including children from disadvantaged backgrounds means taking their social and cultural contexts into account in what and how they are taught. Segregation excludes them outright, and a standardised curriculum or exam-centred teaching ignores the very differences inclusion must respond to.

23.Contemporary theorists believe that childhood is:

(1) A life stage that is awaiting adulthood.
(2) A stage associated with divinity, purity and goodness.
(3) Merely a transitional stage.
(4) Variable and dynamic.

Why: Current thinking treats childhood as socially constructed: it differs across cultures, classes and periods, and it changes. Seeing it only as a waiting room for adulthood, a transition, or a romantic state of purity are older views.

24.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): A middle school language arts teacher selects stories and clippings from newspapers and magazines that portray men and women in non-traditional roles.
Reason (R): Countering prevalent gender stereotypes by presenting other models is an effective way to overcome gender bias.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Why: The teacher’s choice of materials in (A) is a sound practice, and (R) gives the reason for it: showing people in non-stereotyped roles challenges gender bias. So both are true and (R) explains (A).

25.The process of bringing back the information stored in memory to current state is called _____________.

(1) Forgetting
(2) Decay
(3) Retrieval
(4) Attention

Why: Retrieval is the recall of stored information into present awareness. Forgetting and decay are failures to do so, and attention operates when information first comes in.

26.Which of the following statements about classroom assessment is correct?

(1) Use of norm-referenced assessment that compares performance of the student to that of peers motivates students to learn more meaningfully.
(2) Focus of assessment should be paper-pencil assessment rather than non-written behaviours to maintain objectivity.
(3) Formative assessment should include tasks which inform teachers about what students know about the concept before they begin teaching.
(4) Summative assessment does not serve any purpose and should not be undertaken since the process is more important than the final learning outcome.

Why: Finding out what students already know before teaching a concept is a formative purpose: it shapes how the teacher plans. Comparing students with peers breeds competition rather than meaning, limiting assessment to paper-pencil misses much of learning, and summative assessment does have a role.

27.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Adaptations such as audio tapes, use of computer software which provides text-to-speech input, extended time to complete assignments, facilitate learning for students who are visually challenged.
Reason (R): Teachers should adapt the curriculum to provide equity and meet the needs of diverse learners.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Why: The adaptations in (A) do help visually challenged students, and they are one application of the principle in (R): adapting the curriculum so that diverse learners get equal access. Both are true and (R) explains (A).

28.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Adolescents have difficulty with emotional regulation and inhibiting their impulses and are quite susceptible to peer pressure.
Reason (R): Physiological and hormonal changes during adolescence impact the behaviour of adolescents in a variety of ways.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(2) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Adolescents do find it harder to regulate emotions and resist impulses and peer pressure, and the hormonal and physical changes of the period are a main cause of that. Both are true and (R) explains (A).

29.Gifted children:

(1) excel in all academic as well as co-curricular areas.
(2) exhibit high cognitive abilities as well as skills of social communication.
(3) get distracted easily and have low concentration span.
(4) absorb information quickly and accurately.

Why: Taking in information fast and accurately is a typical mark of giftedness. It is a myth that gifted children excel everywhere or always have strong social skills, and easy distraction describes attention difficulties rather than giftedness.

30.Which of the following statements about language and cognition is not correct as per Lev Vygotsky’s theory?

(1) Language development hinders cognitive development.
(2) Inner speech is used for mental reasoning.
(3) Language inevitably affects the way a child thinks.
(4) External speech is used to converse with others.

Why: For Vygotsky language is the main tool of thought: external speech is for communicating, inner speech for reasoning, and language shapes how a child thinks. The claim that language development hinders cognition is the opposite of his view, so it is the incorrect statement.

31.The greatest number which can divide the numbers 282, 696 and 1616, leaving the same remainder 6 in each case, is:

(1) 48
(2) 23
(3) 24
(4) 46

Why: Take away the remainder first: 276, 690 and 1610 must all be exact multiples. 276 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 23, 690 = 2 × 3 × 5 × 23 and 1610 = 2 × 5 × 7 × 23, so their HCF is 2 × 23 = 46.

32.Which of the following is not written correctly in Roman Numerals?

(1) XXV
(2) LXXII
(3) LXIII
(4) VXII

Why: V, L and D are never written before a larger numeral to subtract from it, so ‘VX’ is not allowed. XXV = 25, LXXII = 72 and LXIII = 63 are all correct.

33.If (5 − 7x) / (8 + 3x) = −40/7, then what is the value of (2x + 3) / (x + 9)?

(1) −⁷⁄₄
(2) ¹¹⁄₁₃
(3) −⁵⁄₂
(4) ¹³⁄₁₄

Why: Cross-multiply: 7(5 − 7x) = −40(8 + 3x), so 35 − 49x = −320 − 120x, giving 71x = −355 and x = −5. Then (2x + 3)/(x + 9) = (−10 + 3)/(−5 + 9) = −7/4.

34.The length of a diagonal of a square is 8 cm. If its area (in cm²) is y, then value of (3y − 15) is:

(1) 75
(2) 81
(3) 96
(4) 85

Why: Area of a square = (diagonal)² ÷ 2 = 64 ÷ 2 = 32, so y = 32 and 3y − 15 = 96 − 15 = 81.

35.A certain sum becomes ₹ 6,300 at 10% p.a. in 4 years at simple interest. What will be the amount of the same sum in 2 years at the same rate, if interest is compounded yearly?

(1) ₹ 5,566
(2) ₹ 5,445
(3) ₹ 5,324
(4) ₹ 5,082

Why: Simple interest for 4 years at 10% is 40% of the principal, so 1.4P = 6300 and P = ₹ 4,500. Compounded yearly for 2 years: 4500 × 1.1 × 1.1 = ₹ 5,445.

36.The expression 9x² − 12xy + 21x + 4y² − 14y + 12 is factorised as:

(1) (3x − 2y + 3) (3x − 2y + 4)
(2) (3x − 2y + 2) (3x − 2y + 6)
(3) (3x + 2y − 2) (3x + 2y − 6)
(4) (3x + 2y − 3) (3x + 2y − 4)

Why: Group the terms: 9x² − 12xy + 4y² = (3x − 2y)², and 21x − 14y = 7(3x − 2y). With a = 3x − 2y the expression is a² + 7a + 12 = (a + 3)(a + 4).

37.In a parallelogram PQRS, ∠P = 2x + 20°, ∠Q = 2y − 40°, ∠R = 5x − 100° and ∠S = 3y − 100°. Then, the value of (x + y) is equal to:

(1) 100°
(2) 120°
(3) 140°
(4) 160°

Why: Opposite angles of a parallelogram are equal. ∠P = ∠R gives 2x + 20 = 5x − 100, so x = 40. ∠Q = ∠S gives 2y − 40 = 3y − 100, so y = 60. Hence x + y = 100°.

38.Two alternate interior angles formed by the intersection of two parallel lines by a transversal are (5y − 10°) and (7y − 90°). Then, the value of (3y − 20°) is:

(1) 90°
(2) 110°
(3) 120°
(4) 100°

Why: Alternate interior angles are equal, so 5y − 10 = 7y − 90, giving y = 40. Then 3y − 20 = 120 − 20 = 100°.

39.⁵⁄₇ of ³⁵⁄₁₂ ÷ ²⁸⁄₉ + ⁹⁶⁄₁₅ ÷ ⁸⁄₅ × ³⁄₄ − ⁷⁄₅₆ is equal to:

(1) 6⁹⁄₁₆
(2) 3⁹⁄₁₆
(3) 6⁶¹⁄₁₁₂
(4) 3⁶¹⁄₁₁₂

Why: Follow BODMAS, with ‘of’ first. 5/7 of 35/12 = 25/12; 25/12 ÷ 28/9 = 75/112. Next, 96/15 ÷ 8/5 = 4, and 4 × 3/4 = 3. Finally 75/112 + 3 − 14/112 = 3 + 61/112 = 3⁶¹⁄₁₁₂.

40.A man sold two articles for ₹ 850 each. On one article, he earns a profit of 25% and on the other article, he suffers a loss of 15%. What is his overall profit?

(1) ₹ 30
(2) ₹ 20
(3) ₹ 25
(4) ₹ 22

Why: Cost of the first = 850 ÷ 1.25 = ₹ 680; cost of the second = 850 ÷ 0.85 = ₹ 1,000. Total cost ₹ 1,680 against total sale ₹ 1,700, so the overall profit is ₹ 20.

41.A four-digit number 3x15 is a multiple of 3. Then, the sum of all the possible values of x is:

(1) 9
(2) 6
(3) 12
(4) 18

Why: The digit sum 3 + x + 1 + 5 = 9 + x must be divisible by 3, so x itself must be a multiple of 3: x = 0, 3, 6 or 9. Their sum is 18.

42.Sides AB and AC of a triangle ABC are produced to points D and E respectively. Bisectors of angles CBD and BCE intersect each other at the point O. If ∠BAC = 50°, then ∠BOC is equal to:

(1) 115°
(2) 105°
(3) 75°
(4) 65°

Why: The bisectors of the two exterior angles meet at an angle of 90° − ½∠A. So ∠BOC = 90° − 25° = 65°. (115° = 90° + ½∠A is the result for the interior bisectors.)

43.Which of the following figures has rotational symmetry, but no line symmetry?

(1) Kite
(2) Parallelogram
(3) Rectangle
(4) Rhombus

Why: A general parallelogram looks the same after a half-turn (order 2) but has no line of symmetry. A kite has a line of symmetry and no rotational symmetry; a rectangle and a rhombus have both.

44.The distance between two parallel sides of a trapezium is 8 cm. If the perimeter of the trapezium is 52 cm and its non-parallel sides are of length 10 cm each, then area of the trapezium (in cm²) is:

(1) 192
(2) 64
(3) 128
(4) 96

Why: The parallel sides add up to 52 − 10 − 10 = 32 cm. Area = ½ × (sum of parallel sides) × height = ½ × 32 × 8 = 128 cm².

45.[(x² + y² − z²)² − (x² − y² + z²)²] / [(y + z)(z − y)] is equal to:

(1) 4x²
(2) −2x²
(3) −4x²
(4) 2x²

Why: The numerator is a difference of squares: (sum)(difference) = (2x²)(2y² − 2z²) = 4x²(y² − z²). The denominator is z² − y² = −(y² − z²). The quotient is −4x².

46.The difference between the median and the mode of the observations 13, 16, 12, 14, 19, 12, 13, 14, 12, 15, 16, 15, 18, 19 is:

(1) 6·0
(2) 2·5
(3) 4·5
(4) 3·0

Why: In order: 12, 12, 12, 13, 13, 14, 14, 15, 15, 16, 16, 18, 19, 19. With 14 values the median is the mean of the 7th and 8th, (14 + 15)/2 = 14.5. The mode is 12 (three times). Difference = 2.5.

47.If 12500 = 5^x × 2^y, then which of the following can be expressed in the form 5^x−1 × 2^2y?

(1) 500
(2) 10000
(3) 2500
(4) 62500

Why: 12500 = 3125 × 4 = 5⁵ × 2², so x = 5 and y = 2. Then 5⁴ × 2⁴ = 625 × 16 = 10000.

48.Height of a right circular cylinder is 6 m. If three times the sum of the areas of its two circular bases is twice its curved surface area, then volume of the cylinder (in m³) is:

(1) 96 π
(2) 64 π
(3) 48 π
(4) 112 π

Why: 3 × 2πr² = 2 × 2πrh gives 6r = 4h = 24, so r = 4 m. Volume = πr²h = π × 16 × 6 = 96π m³.

49.ABC is a right triangle, right-angled at B. D and E are points on side AB such that AD = DE = EB. Then, (DC² − BC²) / (AC² − EC²) is equal to:

(1) ²⁄₅
(2) ⁴⁄₉
(3) ¹⁄₃
(4) ¹⁄₂

Why: Let each third of AB be k, so BE = k, BD = 2k and BA = 3k. By Pythagoras on right angles at B: DC² − BC² = BD² = 4k², and AC² − EC² = BA² − BE² = 9k² − k² = 8k². The ratio is 4/8 = 1/2.

50.Numbers from 8 to 92 were written on paper slips (one number on one slip) and were kept in a box. Then, a slip was taken out from the box, without looking into it. What is the probability that the number on the slip will be a multiple of 7?

(1) ¹²⁄₈₅
(2) ¹³⁄₈₄
(3) ¹⁄₇
(4) ¹³⁄₈₅

Why: From 8 to 92 there are 92 − 8 + 1 = 85 slips. The multiples of 7 among them run 14, 21, …, 91, which is 12 numbers. Probability = 12/85.

51.Which of the following statements with respect to linear equations is not true?

(1) In an equation, at least one of the two expressions must contain the variable.
(2) The equality that involves variables is an equation.
(3) If we multiply or divide both sides of the equality by the same whole number, it still holds.
(4) The value of equation (6y + 10) depends on the value of ‘y’.

Why: Zero is a whole number, and dividing both sides by zero is not allowed, so the rule as stated fails. The correct rule is to multiply or divide both sides by the same non-zero number.

52.Which among the following is most appropriate for assessing problem-solving ability?

(1) Assess child’s ability to recall the solution of a problem solved by him/her previously.
(2) Assess child’s ability to use knowledge in a familiar situation.
(3) Assess child’s ability to use his/her knowledge and skills in a new situation.
(4) Assess child’s ability to solve word problems only.

Why: Problem-solving means handling something not met before. Recalling an old solution or working in a familiar setting tests memory and practice, and word problems alone are too narrow a sample.

53.In which of the following situations do the results have an equal chance of occurring?

(1) The chances of a train being on time or late.
(2) The chances of a ticket which was waitlisted being confirmed.
(3) A student getting a question from the 3 chapters she prepared, out of 5.
(4) Captains of two teams tossing a coin to decide which team will bat first.

Why: A fair coin gives heads and tails the same probability, 1/2 each. A train’s punctuality and a waitlist depend on many factors, and 3 prepared chapters out of 5 gives a 3/5 chance, not an equal one.

54.A method of assessment, useful in theme-based learning, undertaken over a period of time and generally involves collection and analysis of data is a:

(1) Project
(2) Checklist
(3) Rubric
(4) Portfolio

Why: A project runs over a period, centres on a theme and has students collect and analyse data. A portfolio collects work samples over time but is not built around data gathering; checklists and rubrics are recording and scoring tools.

55.A middle school mathematics teacher writes the following patterns of numbers on the blackboard:
9 + 1 = 10 = 10 × 1
99 + 1 = 100 = 10 × 10
999 + 1 = 1000 = 10 × 100
⋮ + ⋮ = ⋮ = ⋮
Which of the following mathematical concept/concepts can be addressed through the above pattern?
(i) Introducing the concept of greatest 1-digit, greatest 2-digit, greatest 3-digit number, and so on.
(ii) It can be used to introduce the concept of 10000.
(iii) It can be used to introduce the concept of addition.
Choose the correct option:

(1) Only (i)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) Only (ii)
(4) (i) and (ii)

Why: The pattern starts from 9, 99, 999 — the greatest numbers of each digit length — and its next line gives 9999 + 1 = 10000. It already assumes addition, so it cannot be the way addition is introduced to a middle-school class.

56.Which among the following is usually not used as a strategy in Summative Assessment?

(1) Paper-pencil test
(2) Term End Exam
(3) Observation
(4) Performance test

Why: Observation is an ongoing, informal tool suited to formative assessment. Summative assessment comes at the end of a unit or term and relies on tests: paper-pencil, term-end and performance tests.

57.Which of the following is not true for rational numbers?

(1) Closed under division
(2) Closed under subtraction
(3) Closed under addition
(4) Closed under multiplication

Why: Rational numbers are closed under addition, subtraction and multiplication. They are not closed under division because dividing by zero is undefined.

58.Which of the following does not represent the correct sequence of teaching the given concepts?

(1) Proportion should precede percentage
(2) Fractions should precede rational numbers
(3) Addition should precede subtraction
(4) Decimals should precede fractions

Why: Decimals are fractions with denominators of 10, 100 and so on, so fractions have to come first. The other three orders are the usual teaching sequence.

59.The “Baudhayana Sulba Sutra”, which is a part of the rich Indian knowledge system, gives the same result as given by:

(1) Mean Value Theorem
(2) Pythagoras’ theorem
(3) External angle theorem
(4) Basic Proportionality theorem

Why: The Baudhayana Sulba Sutra states that the diagonal of a rectangle produces as much area as its two sides together — the relation later known as Pythagoras’ theorem.

60.According to National Curriculum Framework, 2005, which among the following is not a narrow aim of teaching mathematics?

(1) To develop numeracy skills
(2) To enhance the ability in solving algebraic equations
(3) To develop the right attitude for problem-solving
(4) To develop an ability to identify geometrical shapes

Why: NCF 2005 separates the narrow aim — useful skills such as numeracy, solving equations and recognising shapes — from the higher aim of developing the child’s ability to think mathematically. An attitude towards problem-solving belongs to the higher aim.

61.A metal X burns in oxygen with a white flame to form a white ash. Identify X and the type of reaction:

(1) Ca, Decomposition
(2) Zn, Endothermic
(3) Mg, Combination
(4) Al, Thermal Decomposition

Why: Magnesium ribbon burns with a dazzling white flame and leaves white magnesium oxide: 2Mg + O₂ → 2MgO. Two substances join to form one product, so it is a combination reaction (and it gives out heat, not absorbs it).

62.Which of the following is not an advantage of using manure over fertilizers?

(1) It makes the soil porous.
(2) It increases the number of friendly microbes.
(3) It fixes atmospheric nitrogen.
(4) It enhances the water holding capacity of the soil.

Why: Manure adds humus, which loosens the soil, holds water and feeds soil microbes. It does not itself fix nitrogen from the air — that is done by bacteria such as Rhizobium in the root nodules of legumes.

63.Arrange the following statements about the process of digestion in cows in the correct sequence:
(i) Chewing of cud
(ii) Partial digestion of food
(iii) Storage of food in stomach
(iv) Quick swallowing of food
Choose the correct option:

(1) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
(2) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(3) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
(4) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)

Why: A cow swallows grass quickly, stores it in the rumen, where it is partly digested, and later brings it back to the mouth as cud to chew slowly. So the order is swallowing, storage, partial digestion, chewing the cud.

64.A ball is thrown upwards. Which of the following statements is true at the highest point before it begins to fall down?

(1) Velocity is zero; net force is zero.
(2) Velocity is zero; gravitational force acts.
(3) Velocity is maximum; gravitational force acts.
(4) Velocity is maximum; net force is zero.

Why: At the top the ball stops for an instant, so its velocity is zero. Gravity never switches off, though: it is still pulling the ball down, which is exactly why the ball starts to fall. Zero velocity does not mean zero force.

65.Read the following statements:
Statement I: Isotopes of an element have the same chemical properties.
Statement II: Chemical properties do not depend on number of neutrons.
Choose the correct option:

(1) Both Statements I and II are true, but Statement II is not the correct reason for Statement I.
(2) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(3) Both Statements I and II are false.
(4) Both Statements I and II are true and Statement II is the correct reason for Statement I.

Why: Chemical behaviour is decided by the electrons, which depend on the number of protons, not neutrons. Isotopes differ only in neutrons, so they behave alike chemically. Statement II is the reason for Statement I.

66.Which of the following processes leads to production of lactic acid?

(1) Aerobic respiration in humans
(2) Anaerobic respiration in humans
(3) Anaerobic respiration in yeast
(4) Rise of dough after addition of yeast and sugar

Why: When muscles run short of oxygen during hard exercise, they respire anaerobically and form lactic acid, which causes cramps. Yeast respiring anaerobically makes ethanol and carbon dioxide instead — the gas is what makes dough rise.

67.Seema and Ashutosh set up a simple pendulum in the laboratory to calculate its time period such that the distance between the two extreme positions of the bob is ‘D’. Seema observes that the pendulum bob covers distance D/4 in 2 seconds. Ashutosh thinks that Seema made an error while conducting the experiment and repeats it. He observes that the bob covers distance 3D/2 in 10 seconds.
Which of the following is true?

(1) The time period of a pendulum is equal to 12 seconds in both the cases.
(2) Time period of pendulum calculated by Seema is greater than that calculated by Ashutosh.
(3) Time period of pendulum calculated by Ashutosh is greater than that calculated by Seema.
(4) The time period of a pendulum will be same in both the cases as it depends on mass of the bob.

Why: The amplitude is D/2. Timing from an extreme position: covering D/4 (half the amplitude) takes one-sixth of a period, so Seema’s value is T = 6 × 2 = 12 s. Covering 3D/2 means extreme → other extreme (half a period) and back to the mean position (a further quarter), i.e. three-quarters of a period, so Ashutosh gets T = 10 ÷ 0.75 ≈ 13.3 s. His value is the larger. Option 4 is wrong on physics: a pendulum’s period does not depend on the mass of the bob.

68.Mahesh left the wheat dough in the open. After a few days, it started to emit a foul smell. What could be the reason?

(1) Growth of bacteria in the wheat dough
(2) Growth of saprophytic fungi which break down the carbohydrates
(3) The oxidation of bran which produces lactic acid
(4) The reduction of the bran particles in dough which weaken gluten-forming proteins

Why: Moist dough left in the open is colonised by moulds — saprophytic fungi that feed on dead organic matter by breaking down its carbohydrates. That decomposition produces the foul smell. Oxidation or reduction of bran is not what spoils the dough.

69.Two circuits A and B are placed in close vicinity to each other. Circuit A comprises a galvanometer connected to two ends of the closed circuit. Circuit B comprises a battery and a key connected to two ends of the circuit. Initially the key is not inserted. Which of the following will be observed if the key is inserted and later removed?

(1) There are momentary galvanometer deflections in opposite directions that die out shortly.
(2) There are momentary galvanometer deflections in the same direction that die out shortly.
(3) The galvanometer shows no deflection throughout.
(4) There is momentary deflection in the galvanometer that dies out shortly and there is no effect when the key is removed.

Why: A current is induced in A only while the magnetic field from B is changing. Closing the key makes the field grow, opening it makes the field collapse, so there is a brief kick each time, and the two kicks are in opposite directions. A steady current in B induces nothing.

70.What is the reason for preferring pressure cookers over open pans for cooking the food quickly at high altitudes?

(1) Lowering of boiling point of water at high altitudes due to increase in atmospheric pressure
(2) Increase in boiling point of water at high altitudes due to decrease in atmospheric pressure
(3) Lowering of boiling point of water at high altitudes due to decrease in atmospheric pressure
(4) Increase in boiling point of water at high altitudes due to increase in atmospheric pressure

Why: Air pressure falls with height, and water boils at a lower temperature under lower pressure, so food in an open pan never gets hot enough to cook quickly. A pressure cooker raises the pressure inside and with it the boiling point.

71.Consider the following statements:
(i) Density of Ball A = 13600 kg/m³.
(ii) Density of Ball B = 7800 kg/m³.
(iii) Ball A is heavier than Ball B.
(iv) Volume of Ball A is identical to that of Ball B.
If Balls A and B are submerged into two identical containers containing water, which of the following would hold true?

(1) Both Balls A and B will displace same amount of water
(2) Ball A will displace less water than Ball B
(3) Ball A will displace more water than Ball B
(4) Both Balls A and B will not displace any water

Why: A fully submerged object displaces a volume of water equal to its own volume. The two balls have the same volume, so they displace the same amount; their different densities and weights do not matter here.

72.Read the descriptions of various layers of soil given below and identify the horizons for X, Y, Z in the correct sequence:
X: The layer is made of small lumps of rocks with cracks
Y: The layer is soft and porous and retains more water
Z: The compact layer containing a lot of minerals but less humus

(1) Top-soil, C-horizon, B-horizon
(2) C-horizon, B-horizon, Top-soil
(3) A-horizon, B-horizon, C-horizon
(4) C-horizon, A-horizon, B-horizon

Why: Small lumps of cracked rock make up the C-horizon. The soft, porous, water-holding layer rich in humus is the A-horizon (topsoil). The harder, compact middle layer with more minerals and less humus is the B-horizon.

73.Which of the following represents a set of communicable diseases?

(1) Tuberculosis, cholera, measles
(2) Cholera, hypertension, common cold
(3) Common flu, asthma, tuberculosis
(4) Chickenpox, cancer, common cold

Why: Tuberculosis and cholera are caused by bacteria and measles by a virus; all three spread from person to person. Each of the other sets contains a non-communicable condition: hypertension, asthma or cancer.

74.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Ice floats on water.
Reason (R): Ice combines with surrounding air which leads to increase in buoyancy.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Ice does float. The reason is that water expands on freezing, making ice less dense than liquid water. Ice does not combine with air, so (R) is false.

75.Which of the following statements about the process of obtaining wool is incorrect?

(1) Dyeing of different colours is done after picking out the burrs.
(2) Sorting is done after shearing.
(3) Shearing is done after scouring.
(4) Shearing is done before picking out the burrs.

Why: The order is shearing, scouring, sorting, removing burrs, dyeing, then straightening and rolling into yarn. Scouring washes fleece that has already been sheared off, so shearing comes first, not after scouring.

76.Which of the following statements about eukaryotic cells is/are not true?
(i) They can be both unicellular and multicellular.
(ii) They have a well organized nucleus.
(iii) Blue-green algae are eukaryotic cells.
(iv) They do not have nuclear membrane.
Options:

(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) Only (iv)

Why: Eukaryotic cells have a true nucleus enclosed in a nuclear membrane, and they include both single-celled and many-celled organisms. Blue-green algae (cyanobacteria) are prokaryotes, and lacking a nuclear membrane is a prokaryotic feature, so (iii) and (iv) are false.

77.A girl is standing in front of a magical mirror. She observes the image of her head bigger, the middle portion of her body of the same size and that of the legs smaller in size. Which of the following is the correct order of the combinations of the magical mirror from top to bottom?

(1) Concave, convex, convex
(2) Convex, plane, convex
(3) Convex, concave, plane
(4) Concave, plane, convex

Why: A concave mirror close up gives an enlarged image (head), a plane mirror gives a same-size image (middle), and a convex mirror always gives a smaller image (legs).

78.Select the mismatched pair:

(1) Estrogen – Ovary
(2) Thyroxine – Thyroid Gland
(3) Adrenaline – Pituitary Gland
(4) Testosterone – Testes

Why: Adrenaline is secreted by the adrenal glands above the kidneys, not by the pituitary. The other three pairs are correct.

79.Which of the following options about Reaction I (R₁) and Reaction II (R₂) are correct?
Reaction I (R₁): Reaction of slaked lime with carbon dioxide
Reaction II (R₂): Heating of calcium bicarbonate

(1) R₁ – Exothermic, R₂ – Combination
(2) R₁ – Endothermic, R₂ – Exothermic
(3) R₁ – Decomposition, R₂ – Endothermic
(4) R₁ – Exothermic, R₂ – Decomposition

Why: Ca(OH)₂ + CO₂ → CaCO₃ + H₂O releases heat, so R₁ is exothermic. Heating breaks calcium bicarbonate down: Ca(HCO₃)₂ → CaCO₃ + H₂O + CO₂, a decomposition.

80.An aqueous solution ‘X’ turns phenolphthalein solution pink. But, on addition of aqueous solution ‘Y’ to ‘X’, the colour disappears. Which of the following is true about X and Y?

(1) X is strongly basic and Y is a weak base
(2) X has pH less than 7 and Y has pH greater than 7
(3) X is strongly acidic and Y is a weak acid
(4) X has pH more than 7 and Y has pH less than 7

Why: Phenolphthalein turns pink only in a basic solution, so X has pH above 7. The pink goes when the base is neutralised, which needs an acid, so Y has pH below 7. Nothing in the observation tells us how strong either one is.

81.Read the excerpt given below:
“With the help of geometry, Euclid explained why distant objects appear smaller and nearby objects appear bigger. Interestingly, he believed that vision is caused by light rays emanating from the eye and falling on the objects seen. However, Aryabhatta pointed out in 5th century BC that an object is seen when it is illuminated by light from an external source.”
What does the above excerpt illustrate about science?
S₁: Science is tentative.
S₂: Science is subjective.

(1) S₁ is true and S₂ is false
(2) Both S₁ and S₂ are false
(3) S₁ is false and S₂ is true
(4) Both S₁ and S₂ are true

Why: An accepted explanation of vision was later replaced by a better one, which shows that scientific knowledge is tentative and open to revision. The change came from evidence and reasoning, not personal opinion, so the excerpt does not show science to be subjective.

82.Which of the following is an alternative conception?

(1) Floating or sinking of an object depends on the nature of the material it is made up of.
(2) Heavier objects always sink while lighter objects float.
(3) The buoyant force on an object immersed in water depends on the water displaced by it.
(4) Floating or sinking depends upon the shape of the object.

Why: An alternative conception is a child’s own idea that conflicts with the scientific one. “Heavy things sink” is the classic example: a heavy ship floats and a light pin sinks, because what matters is density, not weight. The other statements are scientifically sound.

83.Which of the following correctly describes a scientific hypothesis?

(1) A hypothesis is a concise statement about a phenomenon that may be framed before or after the experiment.
(2) A hypothesis is a tentative explanation based on what is already known.
(3) A hypothesis is a broad explanation firmly supported by evidence.
(4) A hypothesis is a set of observations of a phenomenon verified by experimentation.

Why: A hypothesis is a provisional explanation, drawn from existing knowledge, that an experiment then tests. It must come before the test, not after; a broad explanation firmly backed by evidence is a theory; and observations are the data, not the hypothesis.

84.Which of the following tasks is most likely to promote ‘analytical thinking’ among students?

(1) State one situation where a virtual image is formed in a convex lens.
(2) Separate a mixture of sulphur and iron provided to you.
(3) Illustrate fractional distillation by taking an example.
(4) Demonstrate a chemical test for identification of alkali metals.

Why: To separate sulphur and iron, students must examine the properties of each component — magnetism, solubility — and work out which difference to exploit. That breaking-down and comparing is analysis. The other tasks ask for recall or for carrying out a known procedure.

85.A teacher gives an iron nail, a coal piece, an aluminium wire and a pencil lead to her students and asks them to identify the materials that can be beaten into thin sheets. She further asks them to record their findings. Which of the following process skills are being assessed through this task?

(1) Classifying, Communicating, Observing
(2) Hypothesizing, Observing, Predicting
(3) Predicting, Classifying, Questioning
(4) Questioning, Classifying, Observing

Why: Students observe how each material behaves when beaten, sort them into malleable and non-malleable (classifying), and record what they found (communicating). No prediction, hypothesis or questioning is asked of them.

86.Which of the following does not characterize ‘Critical Pedagogy’ in Science?
(i) Teacher plays the role of moral authority in class and ensures discipline.
(ii) Teacher provides opportunity to learners to express themselves.
(iii) Teacher tries to avoid conflicts and differences among learners.
(iv) Teacher cultivates understanding of socio-economic diversity among learners.
Options:

(1) (iii) and (iv)
(2) (i) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (ii)
(4) (ii) and (iii)

Why: Critical pedagogy gives learners a voice and brings social differences into the open for discussion. A teacher acting as moral authority, and a teacher smoothing over differences instead of examining them, both run against it — so (i) and (iii).

87.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): A good scientific theory must be non-falsifiable.
Reason (R): Even one observation against the predictions of a theory is sufficient to prove the theory wrong.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct reason of A.
(2) A is false, but R is true.
(3) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct reason of A.
(4) A is true, but R is false.

Why: Following Karl Popper, a scientific theory must be falsifiable — it must make predictions that could turn out wrong — so (A) is false. (R) states the logic of falsification: a single genuine counter-observation is enough to refute a theory.

88.NCF-2005 recommends that a teacher should engage in action-research. Which of the following aspects is not integral to conducting action-research?

(1) It is conducted by practitioners themselves rather than professional researchers.
(2) Its purpose is to develop a new educational theory related to teaching-learning.
(3) The results of action-research may not always be generalizable.
(4) It is a planned process involving identification of a problem faced by the practitioner related to teaching-learning.

Why: Action research is carried out by the teacher to solve a specific problem in their own classroom. Its aim is practical improvement, not building a new theory, which is also why its findings may not generalise.

89.During a science class, a teacher explored students’ perceptions about how scientists may look like to which she received the following responses. Which of these presents the most apt description of scientists?

(1) They are always serious and in thought.
(2) They are like any other person.
(3) They are very brilliant but somewhat lost.
(4) They are agile and always in a hurry.

Why: Scientists are ordinary people doing a particular kind of work. The other responses are stereotypes, and a teacher collects such perceptions precisely so that she can challenge them.

90.A teacher wants to use inquiry approach to teach ‘shadow formation’ to her learners. Which of the following strategies would be most suitable for teaching-learning of this concept?

(1) Show a PowerPoint presentation on formation of shadows.
(2) Let the learners observe around them and try different materials for the formation of shadows.
(3) Ask the learners to read relevant text from the textbook.
(4) Demonstrate the formation of shadows by objects to learners.

Why: Inquiry means learners investigate for themselves — observing, trying different materials and drawing conclusions. A presentation, textbook reading and a teacher demonstration all hand them the answer instead.

A silly young cricket, accustomed to sing
Through the warm, sunny months of gay summer and spring,
Began to complain when he found that, at home,
His cupboard was empty, and winter was come.
   Not a crumb to be found
   On the snow-covered ground;
   Not a flower could he see,
   Not a leaf on a tree.
“Oh! what will become,” says the cricket, “of me?”
At last by starvation and famine made bold,
All dripping with wet, and all trembling with cold.
Away he set off to a miserly ant,
To see if, to keep him alive, he would grant
   Him shelter from rain,
   And a mouthful of grain.
   He wished only to borrow;
   He’d repay it tomorrow;
If not, he must die of starvation and sorrow.

91.What did the cricket do in summer?

(1) Sat and played
(2) Sang
(3) Slept and relaxed
(4) Slogged like an ant

Why: The first two lines say he was ‘accustomed to sing’ through the sunny months of summer and spring — singing, not working, which is why his cupboard is empty now.

92.Study the following statements:
A. During winter, it was difficult to dance in the snow-covered ground.
B. However, the cricket could have enjoyed skating.

(1) A is right and B is wrong.
(2) B is right and A is wrong.
(3) Both A and B are right.
(4) Both A and B are wrong.

Why: The poem pictures a harsh winter with the ground under snow and the cricket starving and trembling with cold, so outdoor merriment was out of the question. Nothing in it suggests he could have enjoyed himself skating; his only thought is survival.

93.What made the cricket go to the ant?

(1) Starvation and famine
(2) Empty cupboard
(3) Piles of grains at ant’s place
(4) Approaching winter

Why: The poem says it outright: ‘At last by starvation and famine made bold’, he set off to the ant. The empty cupboard and the winter are the background; hunger is what finally drove him to ask.

94.Which genre does the poem belong to?

(1) Sonnet
(2) Epic
(3) Fable
(4) Lyric

Why: It is a short story in verse with animal characters who speak and act like people, told to teach a lesson — a fable, retelling Aesop’s ant and grasshopper. It is not a fourteen-line sonnet, a long heroic epic, or a lyric of personal feeling.

95.What is the theme of the poem?

(1) We should always keep slogging like the ant.
(2) We should always pursue our hobbies.
(3) If we don’t care for our future, we will eventually suffer.
(4) We should keep partying and dancing.

Why: The cricket enjoyed the good months and made no provision, so winter finds him starving. The lesson is about planning ahead, not about working without rest or chasing pleasure.

96.‘... sunny months of gay summer and spring.’
Identify the figure of speech used in the above line.

(1) Metaphor
(2) Alliteration
(3) Simile
(4) Personification

Why: The repeated initial ‘s’ sound in sunny, summer and spring is alliteration. There is no comparison (simile or metaphor) and no human quality given to a thing.

97.Language classroom often focuses on group and pair work. This also helps in developing an important value associated with an inclusive classroom, which is:

(1) Sympathy
(2) Competition
(3) Collaboration
(4) Envy

Why: Pair and group work have learners working together towards a shared task, which builds collaboration. Competition and envy pull the other way, and sympathy casts some learners as objects of pity rather than equal partners.

98.One day you bring some objects to the class and ask the children to name them. You write their responses on the blackboard and tell them that all these names are used for some objects which are called ‘nouns’ and then give its definition. The method you are using is called:

(1) Deductive method
(2) Incidental method
(3) Inductive method
(4) Direct Method

Why: The lesson moves from examples (the names the children give) to the general rule (the definition of a noun). Going from particular to general is the inductive method; the deductive method would start with the definition.

99.When monolingual speakers move from formal to informal modes of speech in the same spoken or gestured idea, it is called:

(1) Code-mixing
(2) Dialect
(3) Code-switching
(4) Slang

Why: Shifting between varieties or registers of speech in the same exchange is code-switching; even a monolingual speaker switches between formal and informal codes. Code-mixing inserts elements of one language into another, a dialect is a regional or social variety, and slang is informal vocabulary.

100.Some words can have more than one meaning. The meaning of words in a particular language relates to which of the following?

(1) Syntax
(2) Phonology
(3) Morphology
(4) Semantics

Why: Semantics is the study of meaning. Syntax deals with sentence structure, phonology with sound systems and morphology with how words are built.

101.The purpose of remedial teaching is to:

(1) introduce new language items.
(2) teach again, the language items not properly learnt.
(3) test recently taught items.
(4) teach again, the language items already learnt.

Why: Remedial teaching comes after diagnosis and reteaches what learners have not grasped, usually in a different way. Reteaching what is already learnt would be revision, and testing is assessment.

102.Skinner opined that children would repeat sounds if they were followed by a pleasurable response. This viewpoint has its foundation in:

(1) the nativist theory.
(2) observational learning.
(3) the language acquisition device.
(4) operant conditioning.

Why: Behaviour that is reinforced tends to be repeated — Skinner’s operant conditioning. The nativist theory and the language acquisition device belong to Chomsky, and observational learning to Bandura.

103.Based on your observation to develop a particular skill, you decide to use the Direct method in your class. For which skill will you use this method?

(1) Listening skills
(2) Speaking skills
(3) Writing skills
(4) Reading skills

Why: The Direct method teaches through the target language only, with oral interaction, question and answer, and no translation. Its main emphasis is on speaking.

104.Which among the following theorists hypothesized that children have a built-in readiness to learn language?

(1) Skinner
(2) Jim Cummins
(3) Freud
(4) Chomsky

Why: Chomsky proposed that children are born with a language acquisition device, an innate capacity for language. Skinner explained language through reinforcement, and Cummins is known for his work on bilingualism.

105.To learn about the system of rules that govern how words can be meaningfully arranged to form phrases and sentences, you need to study:

(1) Syntax
(2) Morphology
(3) Phonetics
(4) Semantics

Why: Syntax covers how words are combined into phrases and sentences. Morphology is about the structure of words themselves, phonetics about speech sounds and semantics about meaning.

106.If children hear two languages spoken around them, this exposure to two languages will:

(1) not make any difference.
(2) put children at a disadvantage.
(3) put children at an advantage.
(4) confuse them.

Why: Research on bilingualism shows that growing up with two languages benefits children — greater cognitive flexibility and language awareness among other things. The fear that it confuses them is not borne out.

107.Input is defined as the _____________ a learner hears and responds to for its meaning.

(1) Language
(2) Communication
(3) Conversation
(4) Rules

Why: In language acquisition, input is the language a learner is exposed to and processes for meaning. It is the raw material from which the learner acquires the language.

108.Your friend is asked to teach functional grammar. She comes to you for help. You tell her that functional grammar means teaching grammar in/through:

(1) context.
(2) rules supported with examples.
(3) explanation of literary content.
(4) rules in isolation.

Why: Functional grammar teaches how grammar is used to communicate, so it is taught in meaningful context. Presenting rules, with or without examples, is the formal approach it replaces.

109.A ‘Recall-Type’ test is a test of:

(1) Thinking ability
(2) Memory
(3) Understanding
(4) Imagination

Why: Recall-type items — fill-in-the-blank, short answer — ask the learner to bring back information from memory without cues, so they test memory above all.

110.Children are motivated by activities that are:

(1) meaningful to them.
(2) planned by an adult.
(3) meaningful to teachers.
(4) planned by children.

Why: What drives engagement is that the activity makes sense to the child and connects to their life and interests. Who planned it matters less than whether it means something to the learner.

111.You want to identify the deficiencies and difficulties of the learners in your class. Which of the following evaluations would you use for the purpose?

(1) Criterion-referenced evaluation
(2) Summative evaluation
(3) Diagnostic evaluation
(4) Follow-up evaluation

Why: Diagnostic evaluation is designed to find out where learners have gaps and what is causing their difficulty, so that remedial teaching can target it.

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

112.The doctors amputated Aimee’s legs because ____________.

(1) they were disfigured
(2) they were not of the same length
(3) they were not strong
(4) they had no bones

Why: The passage says she was born without shin bones, and the legs were amputated so that she would be able to walk later in life.

113.When Aimee began to use designer legs, she caught the attention of ____________.

(1) sports committees
(2) designers
(3) photographers
(4) the fashion and beauty industry

Why: The last paragraph says the fashion and beauty industry took note of her and asked her to model for and endorse its products.

114.Aimee had a painful childhood because:
A. both her legs did not have bones.
B. she underwent a lot of surgeries.

(1) Only A is correct
(2) Only B is correct
(3) Both A and B are correct
(4) Both A and B are incorrect

Why: The passage links both to her painful childhood: she was born without shin bones, and she went through surgeries at two, five and eight with long stays in hospital.

115.Which of the following statements is true?

(1) The Boston meet was for double amputees only.
(2) Aimee’s mother gave her special care when she was a young child.
(3) Soon Aimee started promoting health products.
(4) At the Boston meet, Aimee was the only one on wooden legs.

Why: She was surprised to find she was the only athlete on wooden legs. The meet was for all disabled athletes, her mother deliberately gave her no special treatment, and she went on to promote beauty products, not health products.

116.At the Boston sports meet, Aimee discovered that all the other athletes had only one artificial leg. That did not discourage her. Instead, she began to do something. What was it?

(1) She decided to enter long jump competition next.
(2) She decided to participate in athletics.
(3) She decided to have designer legs.
(4) She decided to enter the fashion industry.

Why: The discovery made her push herself harder; after winning and breaking a national record, she decided to enter the long jump next — an event double amputees were ‘not supposed’ to enter.

117.Which one of the following words is most similar in meaning to the word, ‘self-sufficient’?

(1) Independent
(2) Needy
(3) Dependent
(4) Helpless

Why: Self-sufficient means able to manage without help from others, which is what independent means. The other three are opposites.

118.Which one of the following words is most opposite to the word, ‘unconventional’?

(1) Innovative
(2) Eccentric
(3) Traditional
(4) Unusual

Why: Unconventional means not following the usual way of doing things; traditional is the opposite. Innovative, eccentric and unusual are all close to it in meaning.

119.Identify the clause in the underlined part of the following sentence.
A year later, she broke the world record in it.

(1) Principal clause
(2) Adverb clause
(3) Adjective clause
(4) Noun clause

Why: The underlined part has its own subject and verb and makes complete sense on its own — it is the principal (main) clause. ‘A year later’ is an adverbial phrase, not a clause.

120.Which part of speech does the underlined word in the following sentence belong to?
Her mother, however, treated her as a self-sufficient person.

(1) Adverb
(2) Interjection
(3) Conjunction
(4) Adjective

Why: ‘However’ here is a conjunctive adverb: set off by commas, it modifies the whole sentence to show contrast. Unlike a conjunction such as ‘but’, it does not join two clauses.

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

121.निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्द भिन्न है?

(1) धैर्य
(2) क्षमा
(3) दुर्बल
(4) क्रोध

Why: धैर्य, क्षमा और क्रोध भाववाचक संज्ञाएँ हैं। ‘दुर्बल’ गुणवाचक विशेषण है, इसलिए यह भिन्न है।

122.‘ऊँचाई प्राप्त करने का एक सशक्त माध्यम है।’ इस वाक्य में ‘सशक्त’ एक ______________ विशेषण है।

(1) परिमाणवाचक
(2) गुणवाचक
(3) सार्वनामिक
(4) संख्यावाचक

Why: ‘सशक्त’ माध्यम का गुण बताता है — कैसा माध्यम? सशक्त। इसलिए यह गुणवाचक विशेषण है।

123.क्षमा क्या नहीं है?

(1) आत्म साधना
(2) आत्मा का स्वभाव
(3) आत्मा का आभूषण
(4) आत्मा का नैसर्गिक गुण

Why: गद्यांश क्षमा को आत्मा का आभूषण, आत्मा का नैसर्गिक गुण और आत्मा का स्वभाव कहता है। उसे ‘आत्म साधना’ नहीं कहा गया; क्षमाशीलता को साधना-सिद्धि का राजपथ बताया गया है।

124.गंतव्य पर कौन पहुँचता है?

(1) क्षमाशील और शांत चित्त व्यक्ति
(2) श्रेष्ठ और कुलीन व्यक्ति
(3) शांत चित्त और धैर्यवान व्यक्ति
(4) समर्थ और धैर्यवान व्यक्ति

Why: अंतिम वाक्य के अनुसार जो व्यक्ति प्रतिकूल पगडंडियों पर क्षमाशीलता अपनाते हुए शांत चित्त होकर आगे बढ़ता है, वही गंतव्य पर सफलतापूर्वक पहुँचता है।

125.धर्म का दरवाजा किसके लिए खुलता है?

(1) क्षमा न माँगने वाले व्यक्ति के लिए
(2) क्षमादान न करने वाले के लिए
(3) क्षमादान का अभ्यास करने वाले के लिए
(4) क्षमा माँगने वाले के लिए

Why: गद्यांश कहता है कि जिसने क्षमादान का अभ्यास नहीं किया, उसके लिए धर्म का दरवाजा कभी नहीं खुलता — अर्थात् वह क्षमादान का अभ्यास करने वाले के लिए खुलता है।

126.व्यक्तित्व का महत्त्वपूर्ण घटक क्या है?

(1) क्रोध
(2) गरिमा
(3) इंद्रिय संयम
(4) क्षमा

Why: गद्यांश में स्पष्ट लिखा है: क्षमा व्यक्ति के व्यक्तित्व का सबसे महत्त्वपूर्ण घटक है।

127.क्षमा करना कौन जानता है?

(1) समर्थवान व्यक्ति
(2) सक्षम व्यक्ति
(3) आत्मबलहीन व्यक्ति
(4) क्रोधहीन व्यक्ति

Why: गद्यांश के शब्द हैं ‘समर्थ ही क्षमा करना जानता है’; जिसके पास आत्मबल नहीं, वह क्षमा नहीं कर सकता।

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

128.निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्द भिन्न है?

(1) सहनशीलता
(2) सँभालता
(3) सहिष्णुता
(4) महानता

Why: सहनशीलता, सहिष्णुता और महानता ‘-ता’ प्रत्यय से बनी भाववाचक संज्ञाएँ हैं। ‘सँभालता’ संज्ञा नहीं, ‘सँभालना’ क्रिया का रूप है (वह सँभालता है)।

129.अक्षम लोग में ‘लोग’ ___________ संज्ञा है।

(1) गणनीय
(2) निर्जीव
(3) समूहवाचक
(4) व्यक्तिवाचक

Why: ‘लोग’ व्यक्तियों के समूह का बोध कराता है, इसलिए यह समूहवाचक संज्ञा है।

130.सामर्थ्ययुक्त, पुरुषार्थहीन और अधैर्यवान _____________ शब्द हैं।

(1) विशेषण
(2) क्रिया-विशेषण
(3) संज्ञा
(4) सर्वनाम

Why: तीनों शब्द संज्ञा की विशेषता बताते हैं — सामर्थ्ययुक्त गुण, पुरुषार्थहीन लोग, अधैर्यवान लोग। इसलिए ये विशेषण हैं।

131.क्षमा माँगने से व्यक्ति का कद _____________।

(1) समान रहता है
(2) पहले से घट जाता है
(3) पहले से बढ़ जाता है
(4) बदल जाता है

Why: गलती पर क्षमा माँगने से मन में विनयशीलता का भाव उपजता है, और गद्यांश के अनुसार इससे व्यक्ति का कद पहले की अपेक्षा और अधिक बढ़ जाता है।

132.वाक्य पूरा कीजिए :
अहमवश अपनी ग़लती न मानकर _____________।

(1) क्षमा माँग लेते हैं
(2) क्षमा नहीं माँगते
(3) क्षमा माँगने में संकोच करते हैं
(4) क्षमा दान कर देते हैं

Why: गद्यांश में यही बात है: अहम के वशीभूत होकर जब हम अपनी ग़लती नहीं स्वीकारते, तो क्षमा के विषय में संकोच करते हैं।

133._____________ लोग क्षमा को कायरता कहते हैं।

(1) सहिष्णु
(2) उदार
(3) क्षमाशील
(4) पुरुषार्थहीन

Why: गद्यांश के अनुसार सहिष्णुता, उदारता जैसे गुण पुरुषार्थहीन या अधैर्यवान लोगों में उत्पन्न नहीं हो सकते, और इन गुणों को पाने में अक्षम लोग ही क्षमा को कायरता बताते हैं।

134.क्षमा करने से व्यक्तित्व में क्या प्रकट नहीं होता?

(1) कायरता
(2) सरलता
(3) आनंद
(4) तेजस्विता

Why: गद्यांश कहता है कि क्षमा में लेशमात्र भी कायरता नहीं है; उलटे वह व्यक्तित्व में तेजस्विता उत्पन्न करती है।

135.समय-समय पर ग्लानि की अनुभूति कब होती है?

(1) जब हम क्षमा माँगने में संकोच करते हैं।
(2) जब हम क्षमा माँग लेते हैं।
(3) जब हम ग़लती स्वीकार लेते हैं।
(4) जब हम क्षमा दे देते हैं।

Why: गद्यांश के अनुसार अहमवश गलती न मानकर हम क्षमा माँगने में संकोच करते हैं; तब हृदय में ग्लानि तो होती है, पर हम उसे उजागर होने से रोक देते हैं।

136.एक शिक्षक होने के नाते, आप अपनी कक्षा में शिक्षण करते समय श्रव्य-दृश्य सामग्री और शारीरिक गतिविधियों का प्रयोग करना पसंद करते हैं। आप ऐसा इसलिए करते हैं क्योंकि इससे :

(1) आपको कक्षा में आराम के मौके मिल जाते हैं।
(2) शिक्षार्थियों का ध्यान दूसरी तरफ लग जाता है।
(3) आकलन प्रभावशाली रूप से हो पाता है।
(4) अधिगम संवर्द्धन हेतु इन्द्रियों का अधिकतम संख्या में उपयोग होता है।

Why: श्रव्य-दृश्य सामग्री और शारीरिक गतिविधियाँ देखने, सुनने और करने — कई इन्द्रियों को एक साथ जोड़ती हैं, और जितनी अधिक इन्द्रियाँ जुड़ती हैं, अधिगम उतना ही गहरा और टिकाऊ होता है।

137.आपने अपने विद्यार्थी की उत्तर-पुस्तिका को पढ़ा और उसमें अपनी टिप्पणियाँ लिखीं। यह किसका उदाहरण है?

(1) दैनिक टिप्पणियाँ
(2) मूल्यांकन
(3) पृष्ठपोषण (फीडबैक)
(4) उत्तर-पुस्तिका की जाँच

Why: काम पर लिखी टिप्पणियाँ विद्यार्थी को बताती हैं कि वह कैसा कर रहा है और क्या सुधारना है — यही पृष्ठपोषण है, जो जाँच का उद्देश्य है।

138.अच्छे वक्ताओं के पास किस तरह की योग्यता होती है?

(1) भावानुवाद/व्याख्या करने की
(2) तुरंत विश्लेषण करने की
(3) बोध की
(4) अनुवाद करने की

Why: अच्छा वक्ता श्रोता के न समझने पर बात को दूसरे शब्दों में कह सकता है और श्रोताओं के अनुसार ढाल सकता है। यह भावानुवाद (पैराफ्रेज़िंग) बोलने का कौशल है; बोध सुनने-पढ़ने की योग्यता है।

139.आपकी कक्षा का एक विद्यार्थी राकेश अकसर काल रूप की ग़लतियाँ करता है। इस समस्या से उबरने के लिए आप :

(1) राकेश को नियम सिखाने के लिए डाँट सकते हैं।
(2) राकेश को अपनी नोटबुक में दस बार नियम लिखने के लिए कह सकते हैं।
(3) उसे व्याकरण के नियम समझा सकते हैं।
(4) समूची कक्षा में कई उदाहरण प्रस्तुत कर सकते हैं और राकेश पर विशेष ध्यान दे सकते हैं।

Why: प्रयोग में बहुत से उदाहरण पूरी कक्षा की मदद करते हैं, और व्यक्तिगत ध्यान राकेश को अलग किए बिना सहारा देता है। डाँटना, नियम बार-बार लिखवाना या नियम अलग से समझाना काल के सही प्रयोग की क्षमता नहीं बनाते।

140.आप सर्वाधिक रूप से उपयुक्त शिक्षण सामग्री का चयन करना चाह रहे हैं? सही शिक्षण सामग्री के चयन के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा बिन्दु प्रासंगिक नहीं है?

(1) यह जरूरी नहीं कि इसकी विशिष्ट शैक्षिक महत्ता हो।
(2) यह बाल-केन्द्रित होना चाहिए।
(3) यह कक्षा में पढ़ाए जा रहे विषय के समरूप होना चाहिए।
(4) यह प्रयोग के संदर्भ में सरल और सादा होना चाहिए।

Why: शिक्षण सामग्री का उद्देश्य ही सीखने में मदद करना है, इसलिए उसकी शैक्षिक महत्ता होनी चाहिए। बाल-केन्द्रित, विषय के अनुरूप और सरल होना सही मानदंड हैं।

141.निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा उद्गामी साक्षरता से संबंधित नहीं है?

(1) मुद्रित/लिखित सामग्री के प्रति समझ बनाना
(2) आरंभिक ध्वन्यात्मक जागरूकता
(3) नोट (टिप्पणी) लेना
(4) आधारभूत वर्णमाला ज्ञान

Why: उद्गामी साक्षरता वह है जो छोटे बच्चे औपचारिक शिक्षण से पहले पढ़ने-लिखने के बारे में जानते हैं: छपे शब्द का अर्थ होता है, ध्वनियों की पहचान, आरंभिक वर्ण-ज्ञान। नोट लेना एक उच्च अध्ययन-कौशल है।

142.चुनौती बाधित कुछ बच्चों ने एक नए विद्यालय में प्रवेश लिया। अध्यापकों ने भिन्न-भिन्न प्रकार से अपनी प्रतिक्रिया व्यक्त की। कौन-सी प्रतिक्रिया समावेशी शिक्षा की अवधारणा को प्रतिबिम्बित करती है?

(1) “ओफ्फो! मैं ऐसे बच्चों को कैसे पढ़ा सकती हूँ जो सुन ही नहीं सकते?”
(2) “अरे वाह! इस तरह से बच्चों को एक-दूसरे की मदद करने व सहयोग करने के अच्छे अवसर मिलेंगे।”
(3) “ओफ्फो! ये बच्चे कक्षा के दूसरे बच्चों के साथ कैसे घुल-मिल पाएँगे?”
(4) “अरे! इन बच्चों के लिए तो एक पृथक अनुभाग होना चाहिए।”

Why: समावेशन सभी बच्चों का एक ही कक्षा में स्वागत करता है और उनकी उपस्थिति को सबके लिए समृद्ध करने वाला मानता है। बाकी प्रतिक्रियाएँ संदेह, चिंता या अलग करने की इच्छा दिखाती हैं।

143.आपको कक्षा में विमर्श करना बहुत अच्छा लगता है क्योंकि :

(1) यह शिक्षार्थियों के योगदान को महत्त्व नहीं देता है।
(2) यह वाक् में स्पष्टता और विशिष्टता प्रदान करता है।
(3) यह शिक्षार्थियों को चिंतन करने के लिए शायद ही प्रेरित करता है।
(4) यह आपको अध्यापक होने की सत्ता प्रदान करता है।

Why: कक्षा में नियमित विमर्श से शिक्षार्थियों को विचार व्यक्त करने का अभ्यास मिलता है, जिससे उनकी वाणी स्पष्ट और सधी हुई होती है। बाकी विकल्प विमर्श के उलटे प्रभाव बताते हैं।

144.निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा वाक्य वायगोत्सकी और पियाज़े के सिद्धान्त के मध्य महत्त्वपूर्ण अन्तर पर प्रकाश डालता है?

(1) भाषा और विचार के मध्य संबंध
(2) अर्थ-निर्माण की प्रक्रिया में बच्चों की रचनात्मक/वस्तुपरक भूमिका
(3) यह समझ कि बच्चे सक्रिय/निष्क्रिय रूप से शुरुआत करते हैं
(4) यह समझना कि अधिगम एक सरल/जटिल प्रक्रिया है

Why: पियाज़े के अनुसार विचार पहले विकसित होता है और भाषा उसे प्रतिबिंबित करती है; वायगोत्सकी के अनुसार सामाजिक भाषा से विचार आकार लेता है। दोनों बच्चों को अर्थ का सक्रिय निर्माता मानते हैं, इसलिए अंतर वहाँ नहीं है।

145.सम्प्रेषणात्मक भाषा शिक्षण में सर्वाधिक महत्त्वपूर्ण तथ्य :

(1) अर्थ
(2) भाषा की संरचना
(3) लेखन कौशल
(4) व्याकरण के नियमों को कंठस्थ करना

Why: सम्प्रेषणात्मक भाषा शिक्षण में अर्थ और वास्तविक संप्रेषण सबसे पहले है; संरचना की शुद्धता महत्त्वपूर्ण है, पर वह अर्थ पहुँचाने की सेवा में है।

146.किस वक्ता में कोड-मिश्रण में संलग्न होने की सबसे अधिक संभावना होगी?

(1) एकलभाषी वयस्क – सत्यवीर
(2) द्विभाषी बालक – गर्व
(3) द्विभाषी वयस्क – मीरा
(4) एकलभाषी बालिका – अर्पिता

Why: कोड-मिश्रण के लिए दो भाषाएँ चाहिए, इसलिए एकलभाषी वक्ता बाहर हो जाते हैं। द्विभाषी बच्चा, जिसकी दोनों भाषाओं की शब्दावली अभी बन रही है, जिस भाषा में शब्द मिले उसी का प्रयोग कर लेता है — इसलिए उसमें मिश्रण सबसे अधिक होता है।

147.आपकी जानकारी में यह बात आई कि कक्षा IV की विद्यार्थी मंदाकिनी काल के संबंध में अकसर ग़लतियाँ करती है। आप इस संबंध में मंदाकिनी की मदद कैसे करेंगे?

(1) उसे जीवन की वास्तविक परिस्थितियों से जुड़े उदाहरण प्रस्तुत करेंगे जिनमें वह कालों का प्रयोग कर सके
(2) उसे कालों के नियम अच्छी तरह से कंठस्थ करने के लिए कहेंगे
(3) व्याकरण के नियम समझाएँगे या लिखवाएँगे
(4) मंदाकिनी को अपनी नोटबुक में दस बार काल लिखने के लिए कहेंगे

Why: काल सार्थक परिस्थितियों में प्रयोग करके सीखे जाते हैं। नियम रटना या बार-बार लिखना वास्तविक प्रयोग में नहीं बदलता।

148.एक भाषा अध्यापिका अपनी कक्षा में समस्या-समाधान विधि को प्रभावशाली तरीके से संचालित करना चाहती है। उसे क्या करना चाहिए?

(1) विद्यार्थियों को अपने अभिभावकों से परामर्श लेने के लिए कहना चाहिए
(2) विद्यार्थियों की गतिविधियों का दूर से ही अवलोकन करना चाहिए
(3) अपसारी चिंतन (डाइवरजेंट) को प्रोत्साहित करना चाहिए
(4) प्रक्रिया में सक्रिय रूप से भाग लेना चाहिए

Why: समस्या-समाधान तभी सफल होता है जब शिक्षार्थी अलग-अलग विचार और रास्ते सोचने को स्वतंत्र हों। विधि अपसारी चिंतन पर ही टिकी है; अध्यापिका सुविधादाता रहती है, न पूरी तरह हावी न बिल्कुल अलग।

149.एक श्रोता एक श्रव्य सामग्री सुनते समय मुख्य विचार सुनता है, अनुमान लगाता है, निष्कर्ष निकालता है और सारांशीकरण करता है। इन युक्तियों को क्या कहा जाएगा?

(1) अधो-शीर्षगामी (बॉटम-अप) प्रक्रियाएँ
(2) शीर्ष-अधोगामी (टॉप-डाउन) प्रक्रियाएँ
(3) संज्ञानात्मक प्रक्रियाएँ
(4) विश्लेषणात्मक प्रक्रियाएँ

Why: पूर्वज्ञान के सहारे मुख्य बात पकड़ना, अनुमान लगाना, निष्कर्ष निकालना और सार बनाना शीर्ष-अधोगामी प्रक्रिया है। अधो-शीर्षगामी प्रक्रिया ध्वनि, शब्द, व्याकरण जैसी छोटी इकाइयों से अर्थ बनाती है।

150.ध्वनिग्रामिक जागरूकता किससे संबंधित है?

(1) बोले जा रहे शब्दों में ध्वनिग्राम की पहचान करने और उनमें हेर-फेर करने की क्षमता
(2) ध्वनिग्राम और ग्राफ़ीम के बीच संबंध स्थापित करने की योग्यता
(3) शब्दों को सही तरीके से और प्रवाह के साथ पढ़ना
(4) सही वर्तनी के साथ लिखना

Why: [KEY] CBSE की अंतिम उत्तर-कुंजी विकल्प 2 को सही मानती है (अंग्रेज़ी भाषा II के प्र. 150 में भी यही)। मानक परिभाषा में ध्वनिग्रामिक जागरूकता पूर्णतः मौखिक क्षमता है — बोले गए शब्दों में ध्वनियों को पहचानना और उनमें हेर-फेर करना, यानी विकल्प 1; ध्वनिग्राम को ग्राफ़ीम (वर्ण) से जोड़ना ‘फ़ोनिक्स’ है। अंक विकल्प 2 पर दिए गए।

CTET February 2026 — Paper II (Maths and Science)

Choose your language papers

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026
Paper II (Maths and Science)

Part I — Child Development and Pedagogy

Part II — Mathematics and Science

Part IV — Language I — English

Part V — Language II — Hindi

Answer Key

CTET February 2026 — Paper II (Maths and Science)

Choose your language papers

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026Paper II (Maths and Science)

Part I — Child Development and Pedagogy

Part II — Mathematics and Science

Part IV — Language I — English

Part V — Language II — Hindi

Answer Key

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026
Paper II (Maths and Science)